Deck 1: Cellular Function
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Deck 1: Cellular Function
1
Protein hormones and enzymes are stored in the __________, awaiting signals to be released into the cell.
A) food vacuole
B) Golgi complex
C) rough endoplasmic reticulum
D) secretory vesicles
A) food vacuole
B) Golgi complex
C) rough endoplasmic reticulum
D) secretory vesicles
D
2
Low serum albumin levels (hypoalbuminemia) can cause edema because:
A) oncotic pressure increases.
B) oncotic pressure decreases.
C) osmotic pressure increases.
D) hydrostatic pressure decreases.
A) oncotic pressure increases.
B) oncotic pressure decreases.
C) osmotic pressure increases.
D) hydrostatic pressure decreases.
B
3
Neurotransmitters are packaged into vesicles and then fuse with the cell membrane for release. This is an example of:
A) pinocytosis.
B) phagocytosis.
C) exocytosis.
D) endocytosis.
A) pinocytosis.
B) phagocytosis.
C) exocytosis.
D) endocytosis.
C
4
What is a possible reason for increased risk for chromosomal abnormalities with older maternal age?
A) Ova meiosis is complete by the time a girl is born thereby making them less likely to divide properly.
B) The older ova are more likely to have errors during meiosis.
C) Older ova are more likely to have p53 gene mutations.
D) Ova are continuously produced thereby increasing the chance of creating defective ova.
A) Ova meiosis is complete by the time a girl is born thereby making them less likely to divide properly.
B) The older ova are more likely to have errors during meiosis.
C) Older ova are more likely to have p53 gene mutations.
D) Ova are continuously produced thereby increasing the chance of creating defective ova.
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5
DNA that is transmitted from parents to offspring mainly comes from the:
A) mitochondria.
B) nucleolus.
C) ribosomes.
D) nucleus.
A) mitochondria.
B) nucleolus.
C) ribosomes.
D) nucleus.
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6
A patient will be receiving stem cells obtained from a donor's blood (allogenic transplant) for leukemia (abnormal white blood cells). These stem cells are categorized as multipotent because they can make:
A) multiple types of cells in the body.
B) only white blood cells.
C) all types of blood cells.
D) differentiated cells that can become any cell.
A) multiple types of cells in the body.
B) only white blood cells.
C) all types of blood cells.
D) differentiated cells that can become any cell.
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7
During which phase of the cell cycle are there "checkpoints" where damaged DNA is fixed?
A) Interphase
B) Prophase
C) Metaphase
D) Anaphase
A) Interphase
B) Prophase
C) Metaphase
D) Anaphase
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8
A woman had a biopsy of a breast mass. Which of the following findings are considered precancerous?
A) Columnar metaplasia
B) Ductal atrophy
C) Atypical hyperplasia
D) Squamous hypertrophy
A) Columnar metaplasia
B) Ductal atrophy
C) Atypical hyperplasia
D) Squamous hypertrophy
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9
A __________ gene is one that produces an effect only in the homozygous state.
A) dominant
B) recessive
C) sex-linked
D) hemizygous
A) dominant
B) recessive
C) sex-linked
D) hemizygous
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10
Antioxidants found in food and vitamin supplements are thought to:
A) increase oxygenation.
B) improve absorption of beneficial minerals.
C) increase elimination of toxic chemicals.
D) counteract oxidative stress.
A) increase oxygenation.
B) improve absorption of beneficial minerals.
C) increase elimination of toxic chemicals.
D) counteract oxidative stress.
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11
Single nucleotide polymorphisms are best described as:
A) disease-causing genetic mutations.
B) variations on a single DNA base pair.
C) a number of copies on a particular gene that varies.
D) base pairs that alter gene expression.
A) disease-causing genetic mutations.
B) variations on a single DNA base pair.
C) a number of copies on a particular gene that varies.
D) base pairs that alter gene expression.
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12
Which of the following are characteristic of malignant cells?
A) Anaplastic, proliferate, and nonfunctioning
B) Well differentiated and nonfunctioning
C) Anaplastic, encapsulated, and functioning
D) Some differentiation, evade apoptosis, and functioning
A) Anaplastic, proliferate, and nonfunctioning
B) Well differentiated and nonfunctioning
C) Anaplastic, encapsulated, and functioning
D) Some differentiation, evade apoptosis, and functioning
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13
A patient has pancreatic cancer and has a RAS proto-oncogene mutation. This oncogene affects cells by:
A) suppressing cellular growth and division.
B) turning off protein transcription.
C) allowing the cell to gain function such as proliferation.
D) destroying cellular repair mechanisms.
A) suppressing cellular growth and division.
B) turning off protein transcription.
C) allowing the cell to gain function such as proliferation.
D) destroying cellular repair mechanisms.
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14
A mutation of the breast carcinoma 1 and 2 (BRCA1 and BRCA2) gene associated with cancer of the breast and ovaries will result in cell:
A) loss of tumor suppressor function.
B) gain of tumor suppressor function.
C) accelerated hyperplasia.
D) increase in protein transcription.
A) loss of tumor suppressor function.
B) gain of tumor suppressor function.
C) accelerated hyperplasia.
D) increase in protein transcription.
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15
Epigenetics is the field of science that evaluates:
A) changes in underlying DNA sequence.
B) single nucleotide polymorphism development.
C) copy number variant development.
D) mechanism of activation and deactivation of genes.
A) changes in underlying DNA sequence.
B) single nucleotide polymorphism development.
C) copy number variant development.
D) mechanism of activation and deactivation of genes.
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16
Dysplasia of epithelial cells sometimes results from:
A) excessive sodium intake.
B) chronic irritation or inflammation.
C) increased enzyme synthesis.
D) apoptosis.
A) excessive sodium intake.
B) chronic irritation or inflammation.
C) increased enzyme synthesis.
D) apoptosis.
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17
Which of the following types of gangrene is usually a result of arterial occlusion?
A) Necrosis
B) Dry
C) Wet
D) Gas
A) Necrosis
B) Dry
C) Wet
D) Gas
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18
A metastatic tumor is one that:
A) needs an adequate blood supply to survive.
B) shows slow expansion and well-differentiated cells.
C) remains active to survive.
D) invades deeply into the tissue where it arose.
A) needs an adequate blood supply to survive.
B) shows slow expansion and well-differentiated cells.
C) remains active to survive.
D) invades deeply into the tissue where it arose.
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19
An example of a test that is used for cancer screening (asymptomatic test) is:
A) cytology (pap) smear.
B) endometrial (uterine) biopsy.
C) magnetic resonance imaging of the lungs.
D) thyroid cancer blood tests.
A) cytology (pap) smear.
B) endometrial (uterine) biopsy.
C) magnetic resonance imaging of the lungs.
D) thyroid cancer blood tests.
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20
Enzymes that use oxidation to convert food materials into energy are found in sausage-shaped structures called:
A) secretory vesicles.
B) ribosomes.
C) mitochondria.
D) Golgi apparatus.
A) secretory vesicles.
B) ribosomes.
C) mitochondria.
D) Golgi apparatus.
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21
__________ syndrome occurs in males when there is an extra X chromosome.
A) Triple X
B) Turner
C) Klinefelter
D) XYY
A) Triple X
B) Turner
C) Klinefelter
D) XYY
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22
A normal male and a female carrier for red-green color blindness want to have children. Given that red-green color blindness is an X-linked recessive trait, what information should be given to the parents?
A) 25% males affected
B) 50% females affected
C) Females mostly affected; no males affected
D) Males mostly affected; females mostly carriers
A) 25% males affected
B) 50% females affected
C) Females mostly affected; no males affected
D) Males mostly affected; females mostly carriers
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23
A 5-year-old male presents with mental retardation and is diagnosed with Fragile X syndrome. When the parents ask what caused this, the nurse practitioner responds with:
A) translocation of the Philadelphia chromosome.
B) nondisjunction of chromosome 21.
C) expansion of cytosine-guanine-guanine (CGG) repeats 200.
D) mutation in the transmembrane conductance regulator.
A) translocation of the Philadelphia chromosome.
B) nondisjunction of chromosome 21.
C) expansion of cytosine-guanine-guanine (CGG) repeats 200.
D) mutation in the transmembrane conductance regulator.
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24
What information should parents be given about the consequences of phenylketonuria (PKU)?
A) Mental retardation is inevitable.
B) PKU is commonly associated with other congenital anomalies.
C) High dietary tyramine may help induce enzyme production.
D) Failure to treat properly results in progressive mental retardation.
A) Mental retardation is inevitable.
B) PKU is commonly associated with other congenital anomalies.
C) High dietary tyramine may help induce enzyme production.
D) Failure to treat properly results in progressive mental retardation.
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25
Children with PKU must avoid phenylalanine in the diet. Phenylalanine is most likely a component of:
A) fat.
B) sugar.
C) protein.
D) carbohydrate.
A) fat.
B) sugar.
C) protein.
D) carbohydrate.
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