Deck 9: Hematologic Agents
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Deck 9: Hematologic Agents
1
Which of the following drugs causes a major drug interaction when coadministered with warfarin?
A) Amlodipine
B) Amiodarone
C) Amoxicillin
D) Atenolol
A) Amlodipine
B) Amiodarone
C) Amoxicillin
D) Atenolol
B
2
Which of the following is NOT a documented adverse effect with warfarin therapy?
A) Bleeding
B) Headache
C) Skin necrosis
D) Purple toe syndrome
A) Bleeding
B) Headache
C) Skin necrosis
D) Purple toe syndrome
B
3
Which statement regarding warfarin is TRUE?
A) Warfarin is an anticoagulant.
B) Warfarin is an antiplatelet agent.
C) Warfarin is safe in pregnancy.
D) Warfarin is a thrombolytic agent.
A) Warfarin is an anticoagulant.
B) Warfarin is an antiplatelet agent.
C) Warfarin is safe in pregnancy.
D) Warfarin is a thrombolytic agent.
A
4
A patient taking Plavix is most likely being treated for which of the following conditions?
A) Acute coronary syndrome
B) Diabetes
C) HIV
D) Hepatitis
A) Acute coronary syndrome
B) Diabetes
C) HIV
D) Hepatitis
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5
All of the following are indications for using alteplase, EXCEPT:
A) Pulmonary embolism
B) Myocardial infarction
C) Stroke
D) Stable angina
A) Pulmonary embolism
B) Myocardial infarction
C) Stroke
D) Stable angina
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6
Indications for warfarin include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) Treatment of DVT
B) Treatment of aneurysm
C) Atrial fibrillation
D) Mechanical cardiac valve replacement
A) Treatment of DVT
B) Treatment of aneurysm
C) Atrial fibrillation
D) Mechanical cardiac valve replacement
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7
The dose for Lovenox if it is used for prophylaxis against DVT after hip replacement surgery is:
A) 30 mg Q12 hours
B) 40 mg QID
C) 60 mg BID
D) 80 mg Q12 hours
A) 30 mg Q12 hours
B) 40 mg QID
C) 60 mg BID
D) 80 mg Q12 hours
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8
The correct route of administration for Lovenox is:
A) Intrathecal
B) IM
C) SQ
D) PO
A) Intrathecal
B) IM
C) SQ
D) PO
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9
What is the recommended maintenance dose of ticagrelor?
A) 90 mg BID
B) 150 mcg daily
C) 750 mg BID
D) 1.5 gm daily
A) 90 mg BID
B) 150 mcg daily
C) 750 mg BID
D) 1.5 gm daily
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10
What is the route of administration for alteplase?
A) PO
B) IM
C) SQ
D) IV
A) PO
B) IM
C) SQ
D) IV
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11
The usual dose for heparin if treating active DVT/PE is:
A) 5,000 units q8h
B) 80 u/kg IV bolus, followed by 18 u/kg/hr continuous infusion
C) 1 mg/kg q12h
D) 20,000 units q24h
A) 5,000 units q8h
B) 80 u/kg IV bolus, followed by 18 u/kg/hr continuous infusion
C) 1 mg/kg q12h
D) 20,000 units q24h
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12
Which of the following is an indication for aspirin therapy?
A) Sarcoidosis
B) MI
C) HTN
D) COPD
A) Sarcoidosis
B) MI
C) HTN
D) COPD
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13
What is the antidote for unfractionated heparin?
A) Protamine
B) Vitamin K
C) Potassium
D) Vitamin B12
A) Protamine
B) Vitamin K
C) Potassium
D) Vitamin B12
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14
Which of the following as an indication for Neulasta therapy?
A) Neutropenia associated with myelosuppressive chemotherapy
B) Anemia associated with chronic renal failure
C) Hepatitis
D) MI
A) Neutropenia associated with myelosuppressive chemotherapy
B) Anemia associated with chronic renal failure
C) Hepatitis
D) MI
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15
Which of the following is one of the uses for epoetin alfa?
A) Treatment of neutropenia in HIV patients
B) Treatment of anemia in cancer patients on chemotherapy
C) Treatment of HTN
D) Treatment of hepatitis
A) Treatment of neutropenia in HIV patients
B) Treatment of anemia in cancer patients on chemotherapy
C) Treatment of HTN
D) Treatment of hepatitis
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16
Prasugrel belongs to which medication class?
A) Antihypertensives
B) Anticoagulants
C) Antiplatelet, thienopyridines
D) Antibiotics
A) Antihypertensives
B) Anticoagulants
C) Antiplatelet, thienopyridines
D) Antibiotics
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17
Activase has what mechanism of action?
A) Tissue plasminogen activator
B) Increases vagal tone
C) Inhibits GABA receptors
D) Inhibits prostaglandins
A) Tissue plasminogen activator
B) Increases vagal tone
C) Inhibits GABA receptors
D) Inhibits prostaglandins
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18
Filgrastim is used in the treatment of which of the following conditions?
A) Hypertension
B) Headache
C) Neutropenia following bone marrow transplant
D) Anemia in patients with chronic renal failure
A) Hypertension
B) Headache
C) Neutropenia following bone marrow transplant
D) Anemia in patients with chronic renal failure
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19
Which of the following is an indication for Aggrenox therapy?
A) HTN
B) MI
C) TIA
D) DVT
A) HTN
B) MI
C) TIA
D) DVT
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20
Neupogen is available in which dosage form?
A) Oral tablet
B) IV
C) SQ
D) B and C
A) Oral tablet
B) IV
C) SQ
D) B and C
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21
Which of the following is a common adverse reaction with the colony-stimulating factors?
A) HTN
B) Headache
C) Bone pain
D) Sickle cell crisis
A) HTN
B) Headache
C) Bone pain
D) Sickle cell crisis
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22
What is the antidote for dabigatran?
A) Vitamin K
B) Prothrombin complex concentrate
C) Protamine
D) Idarucizumab
A) Vitamin K
B) Prothrombin complex concentrate
C) Protamine
D) Idarucizumab
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23
Which of the following is an indication for bivalirudin therapy?
A) UA/NSTEMI
B) STEMI Undergoing PCI
C) HIT
D) All of the above
A) UA/NSTEMI
B) STEMI Undergoing PCI
C) HIT
D) All of the above
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24
Bivalirudin is available in which dosage form?
A) Oral
B) SQ
C) IV
D) IM
A) Oral
B) SQ
C) IV
D) IM
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25
The dose of Pradaxa should be decreased in patients with a CrCl 30-50 mL/min who are receiving which of the following medications?
A) Amiodarone
B) Quinidine
C) Verapamil
D) Dronedarone
A) Amiodarone
B) Quinidine
C) Verapamil
D) Dronedarone
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26
Which of the following is an indication for Activase therapy?
A) Acute ischemic stroke
B) Nonvalvular atrial fibrillation
C) Heart failure
D) Mechanical valve
A) Acute ischemic stroke
B) Nonvalvular atrial fibrillation
C) Heart failure
D) Mechanical valve
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27
Which of the following is/are contraindications to Activase therapy?
A) Recent history of CVA (past 3 months)
B) Active internal bleeding
C) Severe uncontrolled hypertension
D) All of the above
A) Recent history of CVA (past 3 months)
B) Active internal bleeding
C) Severe uncontrolled hypertension
D) All of the above
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28
Cilostazol is contraindicated in patients with which disease state?
A) Hypertension
B) Peripheral vascular disease
C) Asthma
D) Heart failure
A) Hypertension
B) Peripheral vascular disease
C) Asthma
D) Heart failure
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29
What is the INR goal for warfarin for mechanical mitral valve replacements?
A) 2-3
B) 2.5-3.5
C) 3.5-4.5
D) 3-4
A) 2-3
B) 2.5-3.5
C) 3.5-4.5
D) 3-4
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30
Which of the following are important counseling points regarding Coumadin?
A) Drug-drug interactions
B) Drug-food interactions
C) Risk of bleeding
D) All of the above
A) Drug-drug interactions
B) Drug-food interactions
C) Risk of bleeding
D) All of the above
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31
Which of the following medications require routine pharmacokinetic monitoring?
A) Pradaxa
B) Rivaroxaban
C) Lovenox
D) Heparin
A) Pradaxa
B) Rivaroxaban
C) Lovenox
D) Heparin
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32
Dose adjustments for Epogen and Aranesp are based on which laboratory parameter?
A) Hematocrit
B) Hemoglobin
C) Ferritin
D) Transferrin saturation
A) Hematocrit
B) Hemoglobin
C) Ferritin
D) Transferrin saturation
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33
What is the antidote for Fragmin?
A) Vitamin K
B) Protamine
C) Prothrombin complex concentrate
D) Activated charcoal
A) Vitamin K
B) Protamine
C) Prothrombin complex concentrate
D) Activated charcoal
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34
What recommendation for treatment dosing regarding rivaroxaban administration is critical for efficacy?
A) Take on an empty stomach
B) Take every 6 hours
C) Take with food
D) Take with a full glass of water
A) Take on an empty stomach
B) Take every 6 hours
C) Take with food
D) Take with a full glass of water
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35
What is the correct route of administration for Eliquis?
A) PO
B) IV
C) IM
D) SQ
A) PO
B) IV
C) IM
D) SQ
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