Deck 15: Critical Care Guidelines and Bundles

Full screen (f)
exit full mode
Question
During CPR, the cardiac monitor shows ventricular tachycardia. From the radial pulse, the heart rate is about 70/min. The therapist should:

A) defibrillate at 200 joules biphasic.
B) perform CPR.
C) initiate oral intubation.
D) evaluate and treat ventricular tachycardia.
Use Space or
up arrow
down arrow
to flip the card.
Question
The typical dose for epinephrine during CPR for asystole or PEA is:

A) 1 mg every 3 to 5 minutes.
B) 1 mg every 10 minute.
C) 5 mg every 3 to 5 minutes.
D) 5 mg every 10 minute.
Question
The best method to confirm the depth placement of an endotracheal tube is:

A) auscultation.
B) capnography.
C) CT scan.
D) chest radiograph.
Question
A patient complaints of dizziness and weakness and has a heart rate of 45/min and blood pressure of 88/46 mm Hg. The ECG shows sinus bradycardia. This patient should initially be treated with:

A) transcutaneous pacing.
B) atropine.
C) dopamine.
D) epinephrine.
Question
A patient complaints of dyspnea at rest has a heart rate of 160/min. The initial treatment for this type of tachycardia should be:

A) norepinephrine.
B) atropine.
C) cardioversion.
D) CPR.
Question
Based on the AHA guidelines for adult cardiovascular life support, cricoid pressure during endotracheal intubation:

A) is recommended.
B) is not recommended.
C) enhances visualization of vocal cords.
D) significantly reduces incidence of aspiration.
Question
According to the AHA guidelines for adult cardiovascular life support, the FIO2 used during CPR should be:

A) 100% or highest available.
B) no higher than 60%.
C) 40% to 60%.
D) based on the patient's arterial blood gases.
Question
When capnography is not available following intubation, all of the following nonwaveform CO2 devices may be used except a(n):

A) color-change CO2 detecting device.
B) esophageal detector.
C) ultrasound.
D) pulse oximeter.
Question
Which of the following is most accurate with regard to the use of epinephrine and vasopressin during cardiac arrest?

A) 1 mg of epinephrine by IV is recommended.
B) Administer epinephrine as soon as feasible after onset of cardiac arrest due to an initial nonshockable rhythm.
C) High single-dose epinephrine is recommended.
D) Vasopressin offers no advantage over epinephrine.
Question
To perform a traditional nasal intubation on an adult patient:

A) a Magill forceps is required.
B) a flexible stylet is required.
C) the patient must first be orally intubated.
D) the ET tube must be size 5 or smaller.
Question
In comparing the PADIS and ABCDEF bundles:

A) PADIS and ABCDEF are essentially identical.
B) PADIS does not include SAT and SBT.
C) ABCDEF includes all categories in PADIS.
D) PADIS includes family engagement/empowerment.
Question
A visual analogue scale is used in which assessment method?

A) Behavioral Pain Scale (BPS)
B) Confusion Assessment Method (CAM)
C) Richards-Campbell Sleep Questionnaire (RCSQ)
D) Richmond Agitation and Sedation Scale (RASS)
Question
For mechanically ventilated patients, which mode of ventilation is recommended by PADIS during sleep?

A) Assist/control mode
B) Pressure support ventilation
C) Airway pressure release ventilation
D) Continuous positive airway pressure
Question
According to the ABCDEF bundle, pain assessment may be evaluated by all of the following except the:

A) Numerical Rating Scale (NRS).
B) Behavioral Pain Scale (BPS).
C) Critical-Care Pain Observation Tool (CPOT).
D) Likert Pain Scale (LPS).
Question
Hypoxia, respiratory and circulatory adverse outcomes, falling, disconnection of access lines and ET tube are some complications associated with:

A) inadequate sedation.
B) early mobility and exercise.
C) excessive pain.
D) spontaneous breathing trial.
Question
The physician orders a spontaneous awakening trial (SAT) for a patient in the ICU. Which condition should SAT proceed?

A) Continuous sedative infusion is used for seizures.
B) Sedative dose for agitation remains unchanged.
C) Patient requires neuromuscular blocker.
D) Patient has elevated intracranial pressure.
Question
Prior to a spontaneous breathing trial, the patient's ability to sustain spontaneous breathing may be evaluated by:

A) serial arterial blood gases.
B) serial pulse oximetry.
C) vital capacity or maximal inspiratory pressure.
D) pulmonary function test.
Question
If a ventilator is used to implement the spontaneous breathing trial, the pressure support ventilation:

A) must be set as time cycled.
B) must be set as pressure cycled.
C) setting should be from 8 to 12 cm H2O.
D) setting should be from 5 to 8 cm H2O.
Question
A patient with severe agitation is being sedated using the Richmond Agitation and Sedation Scale (RASS) for titration of sedatives. What should be the recommended titration end-point?

A) −5 to −3
B) −4 to −3
C) −2 to 0
D) +1 to +3
Question
Gastric residual volume is a clinical procedure to determine a patient's tolerance to:

A) enteral nutritional therapy.
B) parenteral nutritional therapy.
C) macronutrients such as protein, carbohydrate, and lipid.
D) micronutrients such as minerals and electrolytes.
Unlock Deck
Sign up to unlock the cards in this deck!
Unlock Deck
Unlock Deck
1/20
auto play flashcards
Play
simple tutorial
Full screen (f)
exit full mode
Deck 15: Critical Care Guidelines and Bundles
1
During CPR, the cardiac monitor shows ventricular tachycardia. From the radial pulse, the heart rate is about 70/min. The therapist should:

A) defibrillate at 200 joules biphasic.
B) perform CPR.
C) initiate oral intubation.
D) evaluate and treat ventricular tachycardia.
D
2
The typical dose for epinephrine during CPR for asystole or PEA is:

A) 1 mg every 3 to 5 minutes.
B) 1 mg every 10 minute.
C) 5 mg every 3 to 5 minutes.
D) 5 mg every 10 minute.
A
3
The best method to confirm the depth placement of an endotracheal tube is:

A) auscultation.
B) capnography.
C) CT scan.
D) chest radiograph.
D
4
A patient complaints of dizziness and weakness and has a heart rate of 45/min and blood pressure of 88/46 mm Hg. The ECG shows sinus bradycardia. This patient should initially be treated with:

A) transcutaneous pacing.
B) atropine.
C) dopamine.
D) epinephrine.
Unlock Deck
Unlock for access to all 20 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
5
A patient complaints of dyspnea at rest has a heart rate of 160/min. The initial treatment for this type of tachycardia should be:

A) norepinephrine.
B) atropine.
C) cardioversion.
D) CPR.
Unlock Deck
Unlock for access to all 20 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
6
Based on the AHA guidelines for adult cardiovascular life support, cricoid pressure during endotracheal intubation:

A) is recommended.
B) is not recommended.
C) enhances visualization of vocal cords.
D) significantly reduces incidence of aspiration.
Unlock Deck
Unlock for access to all 20 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
7
According to the AHA guidelines for adult cardiovascular life support, the FIO2 used during CPR should be:

A) 100% or highest available.
B) no higher than 60%.
C) 40% to 60%.
D) based on the patient's arterial blood gases.
Unlock Deck
Unlock for access to all 20 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
8
When capnography is not available following intubation, all of the following nonwaveform CO2 devices may be used except a(n):

A) color-change CO2 detecting device.
B) esophageal detector.
C) ultrasound.
D) pulse oximeter.
Unlock Deck
Unlock for access to all 20 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
9
Which of the following is most accurate with regard to the use of epinephrine and vasopressin during cardiac arrest?

A) 1 mg of epinephrine by IV is recommended.
B) Administer epinephrine as soon as feasible after onset of cardiac arrest due to an initial nonshockable rhythm.
C) High single-dose epinephrine is recommended.
D) Vasopressin offers no advantage over epinephrine.
Unlock Deck
Unlock for access to all 20 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
10
To perform a traditional nasal intubation on an adult patient:

A) a Magill forceps is required.
B) a flexible stylet is required.
C) the patient must first be orally intubated.
D) the ET tube must be size 5 or smaller.
Unlock Deck
Unlock for access to all 20 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
11
In comparing the PADIS and ABCDEF bundles:

A) PADIS and ABCDEF are essentially identical.
B) PADIS does not include SAT and SBT.
C) ABCDEF includes all categories in PADIS.
D) PADIS includes family engagement/empowerment.
Unlock Deck
Unlock for access to all 20 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
12
A visual analogue scale is used in which assessment method?

A) Behavioral Pain Scale (BPS)
B) Confusion Assessment Method (CAM)
C) Richards-Campbell Sleep Questionnaire (RCSQ)
D) Richmond Agitation and Sedation Scale (RASS)
Unlock Deck
Unlock for access to all 20 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
13
For mechanically ventilated patients, which mode of ventilation is recommended by PADIS during sleep?

A) Assist/control mode
B) Pressure support ventilation
C) Airway pressure release ventilation
D) Continuous positive airway pressure
Unlock Deck
Unlock for access to all 20 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
14
According to the ABCDEF bundle, pain assessment may be evaluated by all of the following except the:

A) Numerical Rating Scale (NRS).
B) Behavioral Pain Scale (BPS).
C) Critical-Care Pain Observation Tool (CPOT).
D) Likert Pain Scale (LPS).
Unlock Deck
Unlock for access to all 20 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
15
Hypoxia, respiratory and circulatory adverse outcomes, falling, disconnection of access lines and ET tube are some complications associated with:

A) inadequate sedation.
B) early mobility and exercise.
C) excessive pain.
D) spontaneous breathing trial.
Unlock Deck
Unlock for access to all 20 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
16
The physician orders a spontaneous awakening trial (SAT) for a patient in the ICU. Which condition should SAT proceed?

A) Continuous sedative infusion is used for seizures.
B) Sedative dose for agitation remains unchanged.
C) Patient requires neuromuscular blocker.
D) Patient has elevated intracranial pressure.
Unlock Deck
Unlock for access to all 20 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
17
Prior to a spontaneous breathing trial, the patient's ability to sustain spontaneous breathing may be evaluated by:

A) serial arterial blood gases.
B) serial pulse oximetry.
C) vital capacity or maximal inspiratory pressure.
D) pulmonary function test.
Unlock Deck
Unlock for access to all 20 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
18
If a ventilator is used to implement the spontaneous breathing trial, the pressure support ventilation:

A) must be set as time cycled.
B) must be set as pressure cycled.
C) setting should be from 8 to 12 cm H2O.
D) setting should be from 5 to 8 cm H2O.
Unlock Deck
Unlock for access to all 20 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
19
A patient with severe agitation is being sedated using the Richmond Agitation and Sedation Scale (RASS) for titration of sedatives. What should be the recommended titration end-point?

A) −5 to −3
B) −4 to −3
C) −2 to 0
D) +1 to +3
Unlock Deck
Unlock for access to all 20 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
20
Gastric residual volume is a clinical procedure to determine a patient's tolerance to:

A) enteral nutritional therapy.
B) parenteral nutritional therapy.
C) macronutrients such as protein, carbohydrate, and lipid.
D) micronutrients such as minerals and electrolytes.
Unlock Deck
Unlock for access to all 20 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
locked card icon
Unlock Deck
Unlock for access to all 20 flashcards in this deck.