Deck 8: Juvenile Justice

Question 1

Juvenile justice today falls under the umbrella of ____________ law rather than criminal law.

A) delinquent
B) civil
C) domestic
D) property

Answer 1

B

Question 2

Historically, ______________ have been subject to laws that make some actions illegal for them that are legal for adults (e.g., smoking, not obeying parents, and not attending school).

A) offenders
B) criminals
C) juveniles
D) felons

Answer 2

C

Question 3

______________ constitute the largest proportion of juvenile offenses and thus consume an inordinate amount of juvenile courts' time and resources.

A) delinquents
B) status offenses
C) misdemeanors
D) crimes

Answer 3

B

Question 4

Terms such as child in need of supervision and person in need of supervision tend to be used to distinguish ______________ from juveniles who have committed acts that are crimes when committed by adults.

A) delinquents
B) status offenders
C) crimes
D) misdemeanors

Question 5

No discussion of juvenile delinquency can proceed without noting that some degree of antisocial behavior is ______________ for juveniles.

A) irregular
B) normative
C) identical
D) mysterious

Question 6

Individuals (especially __________) who do not engage in some form of antisocial behavior are statistically in the minority.

A) males
B) females
C) Hispanics
D) African Americans

Question 7

All of the following occur during adolescence EXCEPT:

A) dopamine levels rise
B) serotonin levels rise
C) 10- to 20-fold increase in testosterone
D) the brain undergoes a period of physical reorganization

Question 8

What hormone is linked to aggression and dominance seeking in males?

A) serotonin
B) testosterone
C) myelination
D) inhibition sensors

Question 9

During puberty, the prefrontal cortex is receiving its final coat of a fatty substance called ______________ to insulate various brain structures that are important for the speedy electrochemical transmission of information.

A) serotonin
B) testosterone
C) andollin
D) myelin

Question 10

Around about the age of _______, when the brain reaches its adult state in most people, more adult-like personality traits emerge.

A) 18
B) 21
C) 22
D) 25

Question 11

It has long been known that the vast majority of youth who offend during adolescence ___________ and that only a small number continue to offend in adulthood.

A) continue
B) get into trouble
C) desist
D) get caught

Question 12

According to Terrie Moffitt (1993), ___________ offenders are saddled with neuropsychological and temperamental deficits that are manifested in low IQ, hyperactivity, inattentiveness, negative emotionality, and low impulse control that arise from a combination of genetic and environmental effects on brain development.

A) adolescent-limited
B) criminally-desistent
C) status-persistent
D) life-course-persistent

Question 13

___________ offenders tend to commit relatively minor offenses, such as petty theft.

A) adolescent-limited
B) life-course-persistent
C) status-persistent
D) criminally-desistent

Question 14

Throughout much of history, young children have been considered not much different from:

A) criminals
B) property
C) pets
D) adults

Question 15

The term used to describe the level to which persons are held legally responsible for their actions is:

A) culpability
B) responsibility
C) maturity
D) liability

Question 16

Toward the end of the fourth century, there developed a trend toward limiting the power that fathers had over their children in Roman society, as the cultural idea of ______________ became prominent.

A) paterna pietas
B) paterna potestas
C) patria potestas
D) patria pietas

Question 17

During the Middle Ages, church doctrine held that children under the age of seven could not be held responsible for spiritual transgressions because they had not yet reached the age of:

A) culpability
B) control
C) responsibility
D) reason

Question 18

English courts of the Middle Ages afforded special status to children between the ages of ______________, during which time children could be held criminally responsible and treated as adults only if it could be shown that they were fully aware of the consequences of their actions.

A) 7 and 10
B) 7 and 12
C) 7 and 14
D) 10 and 14

Question 19

English chancery courts were also known as:

A) courts of criminals
B) courts of equity
C) courts of civility
D) courts of crime

Question 20

Parens patriae more loosely but more correctly in a practical sense, means:

A) state as parent
B) delinquency
C) status offenses
D) none of the above

Question 21

The concern over vagrancy and laziness moved the English authorities to create ______________ in which "habits of industry" were to be instilled in their youthful residents, who were typically vagrants and beggars.

A) workhouses
B) bondhouses
C) servicehouses
D) laborhouses

Question 22

Despite its regal origins, which first English workhouse soon became a prisonlike institution?

A) Bridgetwell
B) Groomwell
C) Bridewell
D) House of Refuge

Question 23

The British colonization of the United States provided an additional way to deal with delinquent youths, many of whom were sent from the Bridewells to the colonies as ______________, sometimes even without parental notification or support.

A) indentured servants
B) orphans
C) prisoners
D) all of the above

Question 24

A number of concerned New York citizens formed a group known as the ______________, whose motivation was the belief that the primary causes of criminal behavior were economic; therefore if children were provided with food, shelter, and vocational training, they would choose to become productive citizens rather than thieves and beggars.

A) Society for the Prevention of Cruelty to Children
B) Society for the Prevention of Child Slavery
C) Society for the Prevention of Cruel Pauperism
D) Society for the Prevention of Pauperism

Question 25

Criteria for admission to the New York House of Refuge were often ______________, as parents could place their children in residence for such offenses as idle and disorderly behavior.

A) arbitrary
B) selective
C) exact
D) disciplined

Question 26

The Ex Parte Crouse case challenged the:

A) legality of methods used by the Child Savers movement in placing children in workhouses
B) power of paterna pietas
C) legality of binding out children
D) power of magistrates to remove children from their parents and send them to houses of refuge

Question 27

Which landmark court decision brought the ideals of the English chancery courts as they pertained to juveniles to America, thus establishing parens patriae as settled law in American juvenile jurisprudence?

A) Schall v. Martin
B) McKeiver v. Pennsylvania
C) In re Gault
D) Ex Parte Crouse

Question 28

As the nineteenth century drew to a close, which group of concerned citizens called for the professionalization of public service?

A) Child Savers
B) Anti-Pauperists
C) Progressives
D) Bridewells

Question 29

In principle, the juvenile court was supposed to:

A) match sentences to offenders
B) emphasize an individualized approach to youthful offending, tailoring each case to the unique characteristics and needs of the child rather than simply matching sentences to offenders
C) hold juveniles as accountable for offenses as adults are in each situation
D) waive juveniles to adult court for all offenses so they can be dealt with in a stricter setting

Question 30

An indictment in adult court is known as a ____________ in juvenile court.

A) sentence
B) trial
C) disposition
D) petition

Question 31

Under certain circumstances, juveniles can be ______________ to adult court, where they are subject to criminal prosecution and punishments.

A) taken into custody
B) aftercare
C) detained
D) waived

Question 32

The practice of waiver increased by _______ percent in the 1980s over what it was in the 1970s.

A) 600
B) 400
C) 200
D) 100

Question 33

Which of the following is NOT a way in which a juvenile can be waived to adult court?

A) parental
B) judicial
C) prosecutorial discretion
D) statutory exclusion

Question 34

A presumptive waiver is one in which:

A) the prosecutor must prove that the juvenile is not amenable to treatment
B) the burden of proof is on the juvenile to prove that they are amenable to treatment
C) the prosecutor files a juvenile's case directly to adult court
D) certain offenses are excluded from juvenile jurisdiction by statute

Question 35

A prosecutorial discretion waiver is one in which:

A) the prosecutor can file the case directly with the adult court and bypass the juvenile court altogether
B) the judge waives a case to adult court after a full inquiry
C) legislatures have statutorily excluded certain offenses (the most serious ones) from juvenile courts
D) all of the above

Question 36

A statutory exclusion waiver is one in which:

A) the prosecutor can file the case directly with the adult court and bypass the juvenile court altogether
B) the judge waives a case to adult court after a full inquiry
C) legislatures have statutorily excluded certain offenses (the most serious ones) from juvenile courts
D) none of the above

Question 37

Studies of juvenile waivers have shown that:

A) they have a definite deterrent effect
B) juveniles waived to adult courts are more likely to recidivate than youths adjudicated for similar crimes in juvenile courts
C) juveniles waived to adult courts are less likely to recidivate than youths adjudicated for similar crimes in juvenile courts
D) all waived juveniles are punished more severely than non-waived juveniles

Question 38

Under the philosophy of _____________, juvenile courts viewed their mission as helping troublesome, neglected, or abandoned children overcome their difficulties, not punishing them.

A) parens patriae
B) patria potestas
C) patriae paternas
D) hands-off

Question 39

The U.S. Supreme Court maintained a ______________ policy with regard to juvenile issues until 1948.

A) hands-off
B) rigid
C) lenient
D) restrictive

Question 40

In which case did the U.S. Supreme Court rule that the Fourteenth Amendment does prohibit the police from violating the due process clause in obtaining confessions from juveniles and that confessions obtained in this fashion are inadmissible in court?

A) Kent v. United States
B) In re Gault
C) McKeiver v. Pennsylvania
D) Haley v. Ohio

Question 41

Which case was the first instance in which the U.S. Supreme Court provided oversight to juvenile court proceedings, marking a steady shift away from the juvenile courts' traditional operating principle of parens patriae?

A) Haley v. Ohio
B) Kent v. United States
C) In re Gault
D) McKeiver v. Pennsylvania

Question 42

Which U.S. Supreme Court justice likened the juvenile court's proceedings against Gault (In re Gault case) to a "kangaroo court"?

A) Justice Brennan
B) Justice Roberts
C) Justice Fortas
D) Justice Marshall

Question 43

In which case did the U.S. Supreme Court rule that when commitment to a secure facility is a possibility, the "beyond a reasonable doubt" standard of proof must extend to juvenile adjudication hearings even though juvenile proceedings are civil in nature?

A) In re Gault
B) Kent v. United States
C) In re Winship
D) Breed v. Jones

Question 44

What was the sole issue before the U.S. Supreme Court in the case of McKeiver v. Pennsylvania (1971)?

A) whether juveniles have the right to a jury trial during adjudication hearings
B) whether juveniles have the right to bail
C) whether the preventative detention of a juvenile charged with a delinquent act is constitutional
D) whether juveniles could be sentenced to death

Question 45

Practically, the ruling in which U.S. Supreme Court case ruling meant that a waiver to adult court cannot occur after double jeopardy attaches, and jeopardy attaches at the adjudicatory hearing when evidence is first presented?

A) In re Gault
B) Kent v. United States
C) In re Winship
D) Breed v. Jones

Question 46

In which case did the U.S. Supreme Court rule that preventative detention of juveniles was constitutionally permissible because it serves a legitimate state interest in protecting both society and the juvenile from the risk of further crimes while awaiting a hearing?

A) Eddings v. Oklahoma
B) Graham v. Florida
C) Miller v. Alabama
D) Schall v. Martin

Question 47

In which case did the U.S. Supreme Court's majority opinion hold that mandatory life without parole for juveniles violates the Eighth Amendment's prohibition on cruel and unusual punishment?

A) Schall v. Martin
B) Eddings v. Oklahoma
C) Graham v. Florida
D) Miller v. Alabama

Question 48

In which case did the U.S. Supreme Court rule that in death penalty cases, the courts must consider any and all mitigating factors in deciding whether to impose the death sentence on juveniles?

A) Miller v. Alabama
B) Schall v. Martin
C) Eddings v. Oklahoma
D) Graham v. Florida

Question 49

In which case did the U.S. Supreme Court rule that if states choose to execute juveniles who were 16 or 17 at the time of the commission of their crimes, it was constitutionally permissible?

A) Stanford v. Kentucky
B) Miller v. Alabama
C) Eddings v. Oklahoma
D) Graham v. Florida

Question 50

The term amicus curiae literally means:

A) send the record up
B) state as parent
C) friend of the court
D) court as guardian

Question 51

Which law requires adjudicated delinquent sex offenders as well as convicted adult sex offenders to register with law enforcement agencies as sex offenders for the rest of their lives?

A) Jessica's Law
B) Sarah's Law
C) Monica's Law
D) Megan's Law

Question 52

What may be defined as "every action that is primarily oriented toward justice by repairing the harm that has been caused by the act"?

A) healing justice
B) restorative justice
C) social justice
D) procedural justice

Question 53

Which approach used in restorative justice also gained impetus when various victim's rights movements emerged in the 1970s?

A) healing
B) community
C) cognitive
D) social

Question 54

Restorative justice gives equal weight to the needs of:

A) offenders
B) victims
C) the community
D) all of the above

Question 55

Which restorative justice approach focuses on three equally important components for the sanctioning of juvenile offenders?

A) civil
B) community
C) balanced
D) accountability

Question 56

Under the balanced approach component of community protection, which of the following are examples of this ideal?

A) midnight basketball programs
B) dispositional treatments
C) restitution
D) all of the above

Question 57

What programs are an integral part of the restorative justice balanced approach and bring offenders and victims together (voluntarily) in face-to-face meetings that are facilitated by a trained mediation counselor to iron out how the offender can right the harm done to the victim?

A) social reparation
B) victim-offender reconciliation
C) community sanctioning
D) reparative boards

Question 58

Juveniles who commit acts that are criminal when committed by adults are considered a separate class of offenders called status offenders.

Question 59

Delinquent acts are acts that apply only to individuals of a particular status-that of a juvenile..

Question 60

Inhibitory transmitters such as serotonin decrease during puberty.

Question 61

Terrie Moffitt (1993) calls those adolescent offenders who desist status-persistent offenders.

Question 62

According to Terrie Moffitt (1993), adolescent-limited offenders begin offending prior to puberty and continue well into adulthood.

Question 63

Adolescent-limited offenders tend to commit relatively minor offenses, such as petty theft.

Question 64

According to Terrie Moffitt (1993), life-course-persistent offending is a product of an interaction between age and historical period.

Question 65

The minimum legal age of criminal responsibility in British common law is now 10 years.

Question 66

The ancient Romans used the term patria potestas to describe the authority of the father over his family.

Question 67

During the Middle Ages, fourteen was the cutoff age between childhood and adulthood for the purpose of assigning criminal responsibility because individuals were considered rational and responsible enough at this age to marry.

Question 68

English Chancery Courts were formed in the thirteenth century.

Question 69

The Latin term parens patriae literally means "father of his country".

Question 70

The idea of binding is the precursor of modern adoption.

Question 71

The first English workhouse was considered so successful that in 1576 the English Parliament passed a law establishing Servicewells, or workhouses, in every English county.

Question 72

Following the Bridewell model, the House of Progression was established in New York to house orphans, beggars, vagrants, and juvenile offenders.

Question 73

The term ex parte designates a hearing in the presence of only one of the parties to a case.

Question 74

A transfer to adult court is called a waiver because the juvenile court detains its jurisdiction over the child in question to the adult system.

Question 75

Presumptive waiver occurs when a juvenile court judge decides, according to their own discretion after a "full inquiry," that the juvenile should be transferred.

Question 76

Statutory exclusion waiver is also known as legislative waiver.

Question 77

Juveniles waived for property and drug offenses often receive more lenient sentences than they would have in juvenile courts.

Question 78

The U.S. Supreme Court maintained a restrictive policy with regard to juvenile issues until 1948.

Question 79

In Kent v. United States, the U.S. Supreme Court determined that juveniles must be afforded certain constitutional rights, and, in doing so, began formalizing the juvenile system into something akin to the adult criminal courts.

Question 80

In Haley v. Ohio, the U.S. Supreme Court ruled that states are not constitutionally required to provide juveniles with the right to a jury trial for adjudication hearings.