Deck 17: Immunization and Immune Testing

Question 1

Pathogens may be attenuated for use in vaccines by

A) raising the pathogen for several generations in tissue culture cells.
B) genetic manipulation.
C) treatment with formaldehyde.
D) genetic manipulation coupled with treatment with formaldehyde.
E) genetic manipulation and/or raising the pathogen for several generations in tissue culture cells.

Answer 1

E

Question 2

a person who has been exposed to rabies receives both HRIG (human rabies immunoglobulin)injected near the bite site and the rabies vaccine.What does this strategy represent?

A) active immunization
B) passive immunotherapy
C) viral hemagglutination inhibition
D) passive immunotherapy combined with viral hemagglutination inhibition
E) active immunization combined with passive immunotherapy

Answer 2

E

Question 3

An infectious disease researcher isolates the pathogen responsible for an emerging disease.The microbe is grown in the lab for many generations.A preparation of the laboratory-grown microbe is treated with ionizing radiation and then tested for its potential as a vaccine.What type of vaccine is this?

A) attenuated
B) subunit
C) combination
D) toxoid
E) inactivated whole

Answer 3

E

Question 4

The attenuated oral poliovirus vaccine,(OV
P), is no longer administered in the U.S.A. because it

A) is very toxic.
B) does not provide good immunity.
C) can revert to wild-type virulence.
D) can be spread to contacts.

Question 5

Hybridomas are produced by

A) combining two virus-infected cells.
B) fusing plasma cells with myeloma cells.
C) repeated culture of a pathogen until it loses its virulence.
D) combining a viral infected cell with a bacterial infected cell.
E) combining two bacterial infected cells.

Question 6

Antivenin is a(n)

A) antitoxin used to treat snakebites.
B) antigen produced from a virus.
C) antiserum produced from hybridomas.
D) vaccine made toward the endotoxin of a virus.
E) vaccine produced against the endotoxin of a bacterium.

Question 7

Development of new vaccines has slowed in recent decades.This is due to

A) the ineffectiveness of vaccines against disease.
B) the availability of vaccines against nearly all serious diseases.
C) the high cost of development.
D) the high level of risk with immunization.
E) a lack of need with modern medical treatments.

Question 8

Killed vaccines work by stimulating

A) an antibody response.
B) phagocytic activity.
C) the cell-mediated immune response.
D) cytotoxic T cells.
E) lymphocyte proliferation.

Question 9

Which of the following statements regarding an inactivated vaccine is FALSE?

A) It can be produced with deactivated whole microorganisms.
B) It can be produced from antigenic fragments of a pathogen.
C) It is safer than an attenuated vaccine.
D) It is made from mutated forms of the pathogen.
E) It is made from pathogens that cannot replicate.

Question 10

What type of vaccine is the hepatitis B vaccine?

A) inactivated whole pathogen
B) attenuated vaccine
C) toxoid vaccine
D) a recombinant vaccine composed of a single antigen of the hepatitis virus
E) a vaccine produced by treating the virus with formaldehyde

Question 11

Genetic manipulation of a microbe to remove one or more virulence factors is a method for producing a(n)________ vaccine.

A) attenuated
B) inactived
C) toxoid
D) combination
E) DNA

Question 12

Which of the following substances is commonly used to inactivate microbes?

A) formaldehyde
B) alcohol
C) synthetic detergents
D) fluorescent dyes
E) alum

Question 13

The vaccine against smallpox developed by Edward Jenner is an example of a(n)________ vaccine.

A) attenuated
B) whole inactivated
C) subunit
D) toxoid
E) combination

Question 14

What is the most efficient and cost-effective way to control infectious diseases?

A) variolation
B) active immunization by vaccination
C) passive immunotherapy using immunoglobulins
D) immune testing
E) autoimmunization

Question 15

The discovery of antibodies and the understanding of their actions lead to

A) improved vaccine design.
B) the development of genetically engineered vaccines.
C) improved methods of immunization.
D) the development of passive immunotherapy.
E) the use of the technique known as variolation.

Question 16

The first true vaccine provided immunity to

A) anthrax.
B) cholera.
C) pertussis.
D) rabies.
E) smallpox.

Question 17

When immunization levels in a population are high,________ provides protection from infection for at-risk persons who cannot be immunized.

A) contact immunity
B) active immunization
C) herd immunity
D) adjuvant therapy
E) variolation

Question 18

Which of the following statements regarding toxoids is FALSE?

A) They are produced against the toxin of the microorganism rather than the microorganism itself.
B) They provide lifelong immunity.
C) They stimulate antibody immune responses.
D) They have few antigenic determinants.
E) They are chemically or thermally modified.

Question 19

Passive immunotherapy is used when

A) the attenuated live vaccine is too difficult to produce.
B) the pathogen does not produce a toxin.
C) the microorganism can be genetically manipulated.
D) protection against a recent infection or disease is needed immediately.
E) a representative antigen for the microbe cannot be isolated.

Question 20

Almost a century after Edward Jenner introduced successful vaccination,Louis Pasteur developed vaccine(s)against

A) anthrax.
B) human cholera.
C) rabies.
D) influenza.
E) both anthrax and rabies.

Question 21

The concentration (or titer)of antibody to a specific antigen can be determined using a ________ test.

A) hemagglutination
B) precipitation
C) complement fixation
D) agglutination
E) immunochromatographic

Question 22

In precipitation tests,maximum precipitation takes place when

A) the amount of the antibody exceeds the amount of the antigen.
B) the amount of the antigen exceeds the amount of the antibody.
C) the amount of the antibody and the amount of the antigen are at optimal proportions.
D) a toxin is present.
E) a complex solution of many antibodies is used.

Question 23

Tuberculosis may be diagnosed using a(n)________ on sputum (lung fluid)samples.

A) direct fluorescent antibody test
B) complement fixation test
C) neutralization test
D) immunochromatographic assay
E) viral hemagglutination test

Question 24

Serologic tests may be used to detect ________ for diagnosis of disease.

A) the concentration of serum proteins
B) the ability of the patient's antibodies to activate the complement system
C) antigen-specific antibodies
D) specific epitopes
E) the proportion of plasma in a patient's blood

Question 25

A hemagglutination test is useful for

A) determining antibody titer.
B) blood typing.
C) determining effectiveness of immunization.
D) detecting presence of a pathogen in patient serum.
E) diagnosing viral infection.

Question 26

The complement fixation test uses red blood cells as the target for complement activation.Test serum containing antibodies is combined with a known amount of antigen in a tube,and then the RBCs and antibodies against the RBCs are added.A positive result for the complement fixation test would be

A) a line of precipitate near the bottom of the tube.
B) a cloudy solution in the tube.
C) loss of color in the tube.
D) a fluorescent precipitate.
E) a solution that is clear due to precipitation of RBCs.

Question 27

Which of the following diagnostic procedures depends on precipitation of antigen-antibody complexes?

A) blood typing
B) immunodiffusion
C) viral hemagglutination inhibition tests used to diagnose viral infections
D) ELISA
E) fluorescent antibody tests

Question 28

The assay shown in Figure is used for what?

A) detecting antibodies against a complex mix of antigens
B) verifying infection with a virus
C) determining the concentration of antibodies
D) detecting neutralizing antibodies
E) blood typing

Question 29

The presence of fungus in patient specimens can be detected by the ________ test.

A) direct fluorescent antibody
B) indirect fluorescent antibody
C) hemagglutination
D) complement fixation
E) ELISA

Question 30

Which of the following tests do NOT detect an immune response to a virus infection?

A) a viral neutralization test
B) a direct immunofluorescent antibody test
C) a viral hemagglutination test
D) a complement fixation test
E) a direct ELISA

Question 31

The assay represented in Figure is used to

A) detect antigen-specific antibodies in patient serum.
B) detect specific antigen in patient serum.
C) determine the titer of IgM in patient serum.
D) determine the presence of an antibody-modifying enzyme in a patient sample.
E) detect cytopathic effects of viral infection.

Question 32

Which property of antibodies is the basis for complement fixation tests?

A) agglutination
B) opsonization
C) neutralization
D) direct killing
E) complement activation

Question 33

Anti-human antibodies (specific for human IgG antibodies)with fluorescent molecules covalently attached are used for

A) direct fluorescent antibody tests.
B) indirect fluorescent antibody tests.
C) direct ELISAs.
D) indirect ELISAs.
E) immunodiffusion tests.

Question 34

Viral neutralization testing is based on the fact that

A) antibodies can be produced against the toxin of a pathogen.
B) antibodies have different molecular weights.
C) viruses introduced into appropriate cell cultures have a cytopathic effect.
D) the gene for a pathogen's antigen can be isolated and introduced into a host cell by way of a plasmid.
E) antibodies to certain microbes can be given a fluorescent label.

Question 35

A new virus is discovered that causes cells to lyse.Which of the following types of assay would be useful for diagnosing infection with this virus?

A) agglutination
B) complement fixation test
C) viral hemagglutination
D) both agglutination and complement fixation tests
E) viral neutralization

Question 36

A(n)________ vaccine to prevent cervical cancer was recently developed.

A) attenuated
B) combination
C) inactivated whole
D) recombinant
E) toxoid

Question 37

Which of the following assays is dependent on the ability of antibodies to bind to and crosslink two antigens?

A) immunoblot tests
B) ELISAs
C) neutralization tests
D) direct fluorescent antibody tests
E) precipitation tests

Question 38

A woman uses a home pregnancy test kit that tests for hCG hormone in urine.She knows this is a type of antibody assay from the kit brochure.Antibodies reacting with the hormone produce two lines on the test strip.What specific type of antibody assay does this represent?

A) a direct immunofluoresence test
B) a complement fixation test
C) an immunochromatographic assay
D) an ELISA
E) a neutralization assay

Question 39

The study and diagnosis of antigen-antibody interactions in the blood is known as

A) immunology.
B) hematology.
C) serology.
D) cytology.
E) histology.

Question 40

Which of the following statements regarding ELISAs is TRUE?

A) They are not quantitative.
B) They require large amounts of serum.
C) The antibody label is a fluorescent molecule.
D) They can be used to detect antibody or antigen.
E) They involve the use of membrane filters.

Question 41

The immunochromatographic assay uses enzyme-linked anti-antibodies.

Question 42

The MMR (measles,mumps,rubella)vaccine requires multiple immunizations in the first year because it is composed of whole killed viruses.

Question 43

Infection with the fungus Coccidioides immitis is commonly diagnosed using a(n)________ assay.

A) precipitation
B) immunoblot
C) direct fluorescent antibody
D) viral hemagglutination inhibition
E) viral neutralization

Question 44

Rabies virus can be directly detected in brain tissue using a(n)________ assay.

A) viral neutralization
B) direct fluorescent antibody
C)immunodiffusion precipitation
D) viral hemagglutination inhibition
E) immunoblot

Question 45

Passive immunotherapy does not result in immunological memory.

Question 46

When vaccines do not provide lifelong immunity,(adjuvants/reinoculations/subunits)must be given to maintain protection.

Question 47

For some bacterial diseases such as tetanus,it is more effective to produce an immune response against the bacterial toxin than against the bacteria.

Question 48

Because attenuated live vaccines contain viruses that are less virulent,many booster vaccines must be given to produce an effective immune response.

Question 49

The virulence of the rabies virus is increased by prolonged culture in rabbit spinal cells.

Question 50

Agglutination tests are used to detect soluble antigens.

Question 51

Deliberate infection of young children with particles of ground smallpox scabs from children who had survived mild cases of smallpox was known as (vaccination/variolation/immunization).

Question 52

Edward Jenner was the physician who first used cowpox to vaccinate individuals against smallpox.

Question 53

Anti-antibodies are used in indirect antibody assays.

Question 54

Complement fixation is a more sensitive test for the presence of specific antibodies than are agglutination tests.

Question 55

The "dipstick" illustrated in Figure is used in a(n)(immunodiffusion/immunochromatographic/ immunofluorescent)assay.

Question 56

Infection with HIV is routinely verified using a(n)________ assay.

A) direct fluorescent antibody
B) immunodiffusion precipitation
C) viral neutralization
D) viral hemagglutination inhibition
E) immunoblot

Question 57

Raising viruses for numerous generations can produce an (adjuvant/attenuated/inactivated)form of the virus.

Question 58

An advantage of (attenuated/inactivated/subunit)vaccines is that they usually elicit cell-mediated immune responses.

Question 59

A(n)________ assay is used for rapid identification of strep (group A Streptococcus)infections.

A) direct fluorescent antibody
B) immunodiffusion precipitation
C) viral neutralization
D) immunochromatographic
E) immunoblot

Question 60

Infection with influenzavirus is commonly diagnosed using

A) an immunoblot assay.
B) viral neutralization tests.
C)immunochromatographic assay.
D) viral hemagglutination inhibition test.
E) both immunochromatographic assay and viral hemagglutination inhibition test.

Question 61

One way to measure the antibody levels in the blood is by (neutralization/titration/turbidimetry)using agglutination tests.

Question 62

Discuss the similarities and differences between immunodiffusion and immunochromatographic assays.

Question 63

Fluorescent antibody,ELISA,and immunoblotting tests involve the use of (hybridoma/labeled/unlabeled)antibodies.

Question 64

An (ELISA/immunofiltration/immunoblot)assay uses antibodies bound on the surface of a membrane filter to detect antigens.

Question 65

Snakebites are treated with (antisera/antitoxins/antivenins).

Question 66

A researcher uses genetic recombination techniques to remove a toxin gene from a pathogen,producing a(n)(attenuated/inactivated/subunit/toxoid)vaccine.

Question 67

Chemically or thermally modified toxins that are used for vaccination are called (adjuvants/antigens/toxoids).

Question 68

A technician places a serum sample in a well in an agar plate and a solution of antigens in a second well in the plate.The technician has set up a(n)(agglutination/immunodiffusion/immunoblot)assay.

Question 69

How has modern technology helped to produce new types of vaccines?

Question 70

Modern vaccine technology can involve inserting the DNA encoding the pathogen's antigen(s)into a (plasmid/hybridoma/virus)and injecting it into an individual.

Question 71

Antisera directed against toxins are known as (antibodies/antitoxins/anti-antibodies).

Question 72

Compare and contrast viral neutralization and viral hemagglutination tests.

Question 73

Materials that are added to a vaccine to increase the effective antigenicity are known as (antigens/adjuvants/antibodies).

Question 74

Discuss the concept of herd immunity and its importance in creating and maintaining a healthy population.

Question 75

Two types of vaccines for polio have been developed,an inactivated whole (Salk)and a live attenuated (Sabin)vaccine.Compare and contrast the advantages and disadvantages of the two polio vaccines.