Deck 13: Assessment and Treatment

Question 1

What is a characteristic associated with an increased likelihood of future criminal behaviour that is permanent or very difficult to change called?

A) Fixed risk factor
B) Constant risk factor
C) Concrete risk factor
D) Durable risk factor
E) Static risk factor

Answer 1

E

Question 2

What is a characteristic associated with a decreased likelihood of future criminal behaviour called?

A) Positive factors
B) Counter-acting factors
C) Mitigating factors
D) Ameliorative factors
E) Protective factors

Answer 2

E

Question 3

Which of the following is an example of a dynamic risk factor?

A) Being unemployed
B) Being abused or witnessing family violence as a child
C) Being male
D) Having prior criminal convictions for violence
E) All of the above

Answer 3

A

Question 4

Which risk assessment method removes human discretion and relies on a fixed and explicit set of predetermined rules to make the final decision about risk?

A) Actuarial
B) Anamnestic
C) Structured professional judgment
D) Unstructured professional judgment
E) None of the above

Question 5

Which risk assessment method is exemplified by the Violence Risk Appraisal Guide (VRAG)?

A) Actuarial
B) Structured professional judgment
C) Anamnestic
D) Unstructured professional judgment
E) Adjusted-actuarial approach

Question 6

Which risk assessment method is exemplified by the HCR-20?

A) Actuarial
B) Structured professional judgment
C) Anamnestic
D) Unstructured professional judgment
E) Adjusted-actuarial approach

Question 7

Which of the following accurately lists the major risk assessment methods in order from least structured to most structured?

A) Unstructured professional judgment, structured professional judgment, actuarial, anamnestic
B) Actuarial, unstructured professional judgment, structured professional judgment, anamnestic
C) Unstructured professional judgment, anamnestic, structured professional judgment, actuarial
D) Anamnestic, unstructured professional judgment, structured professional judgment, actuarial
E) Unstructured professional judgment, structured professional judgment, anamnestic, actuarial

Question 8

Whenever Ralph gets paid he goes to the liquor store and buys himself a 24 pack of beer, which he drinks in one sitting. By the time he is nearing the end of his beer, he is in a foul mood and he picks arguments with his wife, which escalates to physical violence. What is the sequence of factors that repeatedly lead to Ralph's assaults of his wife called?

A) Offence cycle
B) Criminal chain
C) Offending trajectory
D) Serial offending sequence
E) Crime trajectory

Question 9

Which risk assessment method focuses on uncovering the sequence of personal and situational factors that led to past offending on the assumption that if a similar sequence of events re-appears in the future, the offender is likely to commit another offence?

A) Actuarial
B) Structured professional judgment
C) Anamnestic
D) Unstructured professional judgment
E) Adjusted-actuarial approach

Question 10

Which of the following is a weakness associated with the unstructured professional judgment method of risk assessment?

A) Suffers from low interrater reliability
B) Lacks transparency
C) Exhibits relatively poor accuracy
D) Both A and B
E) All of the above

Question 11

What term is used for the original group of participants studied to develop a new psychological test or assessment tool?

A) Source sample
B) Control group
C) Construction sample
D) Psychometric group
E) Participant pool

Question 12

In the risk assessment context, the so-called clinical versus actuarial debate centres on which of the following?

A) Whether risk assessments should be conducted in mental health clinics or correctional facilities
B) Whether clinical diagnoses such as psychopathy should be considered in risk assessments
C) Whether mental health experts or judges should have the final say about an offender's risk
D) Whether a 70 per cent chance of re-offending should be considered "high risk"
E) Whether human discretion should be allowed to influence the final judgment of risk

Question 13

According to the "nothing works" mantra that dominated criminological thinking during the late 1970s and 1980s, which of the following is true?

A) Psychological tests could not accurately assess offender personalities.
B) Offender treatment did not reduce re-offending.
C) Longer sentences did not deter offenders.
D) Experts could not accurately forecast who re-offended.
E) All of the above

Question 14

RNR model represents one approach to offender treatment. The acronym RNR stands for risk, need, and which of the following?

A) Reduction
B) Responsibility
C) Reinforcement
D) Responsivity
E) Respect

Question 15

The need principle of the RNR model of offender treatment specifies that treatment should target which of the following?

A) Dynamic risk factors
B) Static risk factors
C) Protective factors
D) Both A and B
E) All of the above

Question 16

According to the risk principle of the RNR model of offender treatment, which of the following is true?

A) Sex offenders should receive the most treatment.
B) All offenders should receive an equal amount of treatment.
C) The highest risk offenders should receive the most treatment.
D) The youngest offenders should receive the most treatment.
E) Female offenders should receive the most treatment.

Question 17

Offender X did not finish elementary school and has great difficulty reading and writing. The officials responsible for X's treatment have adapted some aspects of the program so that the written materials are read aloud and X gives oral instead of written responses to the homework questions. The adaptations made for X reflect which RNR principle?

A) Need
B) General responsivity
C) Risk
D) Specific responsivity
E) None of the above

Question 18

What is one of the major criticisms levelled against the RNR model of offender treatment?

A) There is little evidence it reduces reoffending.
B) The cost of this approach exceeds the savings gained from reduced reoffending.
C) It is unappealing to offenders and does not motivate them to engage in treatment.
D) It only appears to reduce offending among white, male, first-time offenders.
E) It takes resources away from more deserving recipients.

Question 19

The GLM is an approach to offender treatment. What does the acronym GLM stand for?

A) Greater likelihood model
B) Good luck model
C) God loves model
D) Gracious living model
E) Good lives model

Question 20

The GLM approach to offender treatment uses which term to refer to personal characteristics, states of mind, and experiences that people value and promote their psychological health?

A) Primary human goods
B) Psychological priorities
C) Basic human needs
D) Bare necessities
E) Essential life goals

Question 21

What is the first and foremost goal of the GLM approach to offender treatment?

A) Making an offender's time in prison as comfortable and pleasant as possible
B) Reintegrating the offender back into society as soon as possible
C) Reducing the offender's risk of reoffending
D) Improving the offender's general well-being and life satisfaction
E) Helping the offender find religious and spiritual guidance

Question 22

A multimodal treatment is one that does which of the following?

A) Uses more than one therapist to deliver the treatment
B) Consists of more than one treatment component or activity
C) Is delivered in groups with more than one client
D) Consists of a series of classes or treatment sessions
E) Involves more than one prescription medication

Question 23

Which of the following statements about the effectiveness of offender treatment programs is NOT true?

A) Structured treatments are more effective than unstructured treatments.
B) High frequency sessions in a short period of time are more effective than spreading the same treatment across a longer period of time.
C) Treatments addressing more than one need are more effective than those targeting a single need.
D) Programs incorporating cognitive-behavioural treatment are more effective than punishments.
E) Institutionally-based treatments are more effective than community-based treatments.

Question 24

In the context of offender treatment programs, what does attrition refer to?

A) The number of intended program participants who do not complete treatment
B) A rehabilitation program that incorporates healthy food and snacks
C) Inferences about the causes of an offender's crimes
D) An offender's lack of motivation
E) The completion of treatment goals

Question 25

A treatment program that uses cognitive restructuring involves which of the following?

A) Administering electroconvulsive therapy
B) Changing faulty or distorted thought content
C) Improving decision-making processes in social situations
D) Thinking about how to re-organize one's life and social networks
E) Healing damaged brain cells

Question 26

Cognitive restructuring and cognitive skills development are typically components of which type of therapy?

A) Classical conditioning therapy
B) Psychoanalysis
C) Cognitive-behavioural therapy
D) Gestalt therapy
E) Existential therapy

Question 27

What does treatment integrity refer to?

A) Delivering positive and humane treatments to offenders
B) Ensuring the therapists are warm and encouraging but do not cross ethical boundaries
C) Ensuring offenders are honest and truthful during treatment, usually by employing the use of a polygraph
D) Delivering treatments in the manner they were intended to be delivered
E) Ensuring that treatments are administered by professionals with proper credentials

Question 28

Research finds that offender treatment programs tend to be much more successful when they are small demonstration projects as opposed to programs operated on a large scale. This finding has been generally attributed to problems in large scale programs with which of the following?

A) Poor interrater reliability
B) The use of uncertified therapists
C) Poor offender motivation
D) A larger proportion of high risk offenders
E) Poor treatment integrity

Question 29

What is an inspection to assess whether an offender treatment program is being delivered the way it is supposed to be delivered called?

A) Accreditation inspection
B) Program review
C) Program audit
D) Therapy program examination
E) Integrity check

Question 30

What does program accreditation mean?

A) The program is recognized as incorporating best treatment practices.
B) The treatment is delivered only by certified therapists.
C) Offenders receive university credit on completion of the program.
D) The program is recognized and covered by insurance providers.
E) The program is proven to be successful.

Question 31

Define and distinguish risk assessment and risk management.

Question 32

Define and distinguish static risk factors and dynamic risk factors. Give an example of each.

Question 33

Identify and briefly describe the three main steps in the risk assessment process.

Question 34

Define and distinguish between general and specific responsivity.

Question 35

Identify and describe the two elements or common components of cognitive-behavioural treatment programs.

Question 36

What is the difference between program accreditation and a program audit?

Question 37

Define the term "treatment integrity". Identify two indicators of program integrity.

Question 38

Identify and describe the RNR principles of offender treatment.

Question 39

Identify and briefly describe the four main risk assessment methods and explain one strength and one weakness associated with each method.