Deck 1: Adult

Question 1

The nurse provides discharge instructions to a client with a graft site on the right leg. Which statement, if made by the client, would indicate the need for further instruction?

A)"I will elevate and immobilize the graft site."
B)"Weight bearing is allowed to reduce edema and maintain the leg's strength."
C)"Fabric softeners and harsh detergents should be avoided."
D)"I should avoid wearing shorts when going outside during the day."

Answer 1

"Weight bearing is allowed to reduce edema and maintain the leg's strength."

Question 2

A 20-year-old male client with a BMI of 33 has been admitted for recurrent chest pains and difficulty breathing. During the assessment, it is found that his father and mother have both suffered from myocardial infarction before the age of 50. Which of the following nursing actions is the first step to prevent the client from developing myocardial infarction?

A)Encourage the client in initiating and maintaining a regular exercise program.
B)Instruct the client to avoid fatty and high-calorie meals.
C)Assess the client's level of interest in weight reduction programs.
D)Educate the client about the risks of obesity and myocardial infarction.

Answer 2

Assess the client's level of interest in weight reduction programs.

Question 3

The nurse is reviewing the goals of the treatment plan for a new patient admitted with Septic Shock with a nursing student. What is the best summary of the priorities of care for the patient with Septic Shock?

A)Maintain the patient's oxygenation and ventilation without mechanical help.
B)Identify and treat the infecting pathogen.
C)Obtain blood cultures and use broad spectrum antibiotic coverage.
D)Maintain the hemodynamic stability of the patient.

Answer 3

Identify and treat the infecting pathogen.

Question 4

The nurse is preparing to transfer the patient to a telemetry unit after treatment for a new diagnosis of Atrial Fibrillation and Status Post Mechanical Valve. The patient will be on long term Warfarin Therapy. What is the goal International Normalized Ratio (INR) for this patient?

A)4 to 5
B)3 to 4
C)1 to 2
D)2 to 3

Question 5

A patient has been transferred to the intensive care unit after being diagnosed with Diabetes Ketoacidosis. The nurse would expect to see the following signs and symptoms:

A)Severe dehydration, rapid and deep breathing and abdominal cramps
B)Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia
C)Extreme thirst, nocturia, hypotension and tachycardia
D)Muscle aches, frequent urination, hyponatremia

Question 6

The nurse is taking care of a 51 year old with Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia (ALL) with a White Blood Cell count of 6.0. What would the nurse NOT do when preventing infection from occurring in the patient?

A)Take vital signs every 2 hours.
B)Insert a Foley Catheter.
C)Check the patient's mouth frequently and give saline solution rinses.
D)Give antibiotic therapy immediately when white counts fall.

Question 7

A patient has second and third degree burn injuries to his anterior chest and abdomen, anterior left arm, anterior right arm and left anterior leg. Using the Rule of Nines, what percentage of the body surface area (BSA) is affected?

A)36%
B)50%
C)27%
D)31%

Question 8

When working the family of the patient in critical care, a nurse should use this kind of Therapeutic Communication:

A)Advise the family to remain quiet while visiting and avoid stimulating the patient.
B)Consider the family a part of the team and listen to their input.
C)Refer them to the primary care doctor for all of their questions.
D)Enforce visiting hours to maintain a routine of care for the patient.

Question 9

A patient is beginning IV Phenytoin for diagnosis of a new onset of Seizures. What adverse effects would the nurse asses for after administering the medication?

A)Hemorrhage, prolonged clotting time and thrombocytopenia
B)Increased Intracranial Pressure (ICP), cerebral edema and somnolence
C)Gastrointestinal bleeding, acute renal insufficiency, liver dysfunction
D)Slurred speech, thrombocytopenia, Stevens-Johnson syndrome

Question 10

A patient has been admitted to the intensive care unit with a diagnosis of "rule out" Guillain-Barre syndrome. The nurse is completing the admission data base and asking about the patient's history. What diagnosis might precipitate a diagnosis of Guillian-Barre syndrome?

A)Myocardial infarction within the last 6 months
B)Headache, nausea and nuchal rigidity
C)Mild fevers, upper respiratory infection or a minor virus
D)Slurred speech and weakness in one or both sides of the body

Question 11

The nurse is assessing the tests of a patient with a diagnosis of acute right-sided Heart Failure. What parameter would be elevated in right-sided Heart Failure?

A)Central Venous Pressure (CVP)
B)Cardiac Output
C)Left-ventricular end-diastolic pressure
D)Pulmonary Capillary Wedge Pressure (PCWP)

Question 12

The nurse is preparing to wean a patient from mechanical ventilation. What option is NOT a method of weaning the patient from mechanical ventilation?

A)Pressure support ventilation
B)Controlled mandatory ventilation
C)Using a T-piece, perform spontaneous breathing trials
D)Intermittent mandatory ventilation

Question 13

A patient admitted with suspected renal disease and severe low back pain is preparing to go to have a Renal Arteriography test. Before going to the test, the nurse would ensure that:

A)The patient is not allergic to iodine and shellfish.
B)Cancel the morning lab requisitions until after the test is complete.
C)Administer Benadryl 30 minutes before the test.
D)Check the potassium and sodium serum levels to ensure normal levels.

Question 14

The nurse is assisting the physician during an Abdominal Paracentesis. What is the maximum amount of fluid that should be aspirated?

A)1,000 to 1,500 mL
B)2,000 to 2,500 mL
C)1,500 to 2,000 mL
D)2,500 to 3,000 mL

Question 15

More patients are being diagnosed with Multi Organ Dysfunction Syndrome (MODS) and being treated in the Intensive Care Unit. This is because:

A)Only intensive care units have adequate facilities to deal with multi infectious disease processes.
B)The progress of health care treatments and services are more effective resulting in a greater increase of patients surviving traumatic injuries and infections.
C)Physicians and emergency room staff are faster at identifying multi organ dysfunction syndrome.
D)Staffing is more efficient in intensive care units.

Question 16

Which gland is responsible for the release of Calcitonin?

A)Thyroid
B)Parathyroid
C)Adrenal
D)Pituitary

Question 17

A patient has developed Acute Respiratory Acidosis, with a pH of 7.25 and a PaCO2 of 55. What is the underlying cause of Respiratory Acidosis?

A)The lungs are not sufficiently ventilating.
B)The lungs are working excessively resulting in "over breathing."
C)There is an underlying gastric disorder.
D)There are elevated levels of aldosterone present.

Question 18

What are the signs and symptoms of patient who is in stage 3 of Hepatic Encephalopathy?

A)Coma, unresponsive to pain, posturing.
B)Fatigue, restlessness, irritability and decreased attention span.
C)Severe confusion, inability to follow commands.
D)Drowsiness, confusion and lethargy.

Question 19

A patient's family begins to ask several questions about the variety of numbers on the patient's monitor. What would be the most appropriate response for the nurse to give?

A)"The numbers tell us when we need to call the doctor."
B)"Why don't you understand the numbers on the monitor?"
C)"Tell me about which numbers are concerning you."
D)"When the doctor comes in, I'll have her explain the numbers to you."

Question 20

A patient is suspected of developing an Upper Gastrointestinal bleed two days after a total hip replacement. What are the most appropriate nursing actions?

A)Make the patient NPO (nothing by mouth) and insert a Nasogastric tube to intermittent suction.
B)Make the patient NPO (nothing by mouth) and saline lock the intravenous device (IV).
C)Check the vital signs and check the labs to evaluate the Hemoglobin and Hematocrit.
D)Give the patient ice chips only and evaluate the patient for signs and symptoms of bleeding.

Question 21

A patient comes to the ICU after undergoing a penetrating trauma to his chest. The object is a long stick off a tree and is still present. The patient's vital signs include a blood pressure of 98/50, a heart rate of 118 and respiratory rate of 20. Which action would the nurse follow as the best course of action?

A)Remove the object and hold pressure for 25 minutes.
B)Do not remove the object.
C)Cut off the end of the stick.
D)Slightly move the object to the side to avoid interference with the tubes and wires.

Question 22

A nurse is performing a neurological assessment on a patient admitted to the Intensive Care Unit with a right-sided stroke. What would be the sign of a positive Babinski's reflex in the stroke victim?

A)The knee jerks up when the pressure is applied directly above the patella.
B)The great toe dorsiflexes and the other toes fan out.
C)All the toes flex inward.
D)The toes do not move individually, but the whole foot stiffens and retracts.

Question 23

A nurse is ending his shift and comes in to re-assess his patient, a seventy six year old woman who was diagnosed with a brain lesion. He notes that the patient appears restless and does not know where she is. Upon further examination, he notes that her pupils are sluggish to react to light and are unequal in size. She is unable to sit up at the side of the bed and her blood pressure has risen to 190/88. What does the nurse suspect is occurring?

A)Increased Intracranial Pressure
B)Cerebral aneurysm
C)Stroke
D)Myocardial infarction

Question 24

What is the best way to describe what happens during a Cerebral Aneurysm?

A)An obstruction or narrowing of the lumen of the aorta and its major branches.
B)An obstruction of an artery at the brain stem which results in lack of oxygen to the brain.
C)Blood flow exerts pressure against a weak artery wall resulting in a rupture of the arterial wall.
D)Inflammation of the brain and spinal cord meninges that affects all three meningeal membranes.

Question 25

What are some signs and symptoms of an impending Aneurysm rupture?

A)Profuse sweating, headache, lethargy, nausea and vomiting.
B)Shortness of breath at rest, rapid heart rate, low grade fever, hypotension
C)High blood pressure, onset of chest pain and shortness of breath
D)Headache, nausea, back and leg stiffness that lasts several days

Question 26

A 47 year old man has been admitted immediately to the Intensive Care Unit after a tree fell on him at a construction site. What will be the primary treatment for a Spinal Injury?

A)Place the patient in a hard cervical collar.
B)Perform a neurological assessment every four hours to assess further injury.
C)Reduce inflammation promptly by administering Methylprednisolone.
D)Stabilize the spine and prevent cord damage.

Question 27

What is the best way a nurse can prevent the development of pressure ulcers in a patient who is in a drug induced coma?

A)Closely monitor the patient's intracranial pressure (ICP), electrocardiogram and vital signs.
B)Make sure that all visitors wash their hands before entering the room and making contact with the patient.
C)Turn and reposition the patient every two hours.
D)Assess the heels for signs of redness and foot drop.

Question 28

A nurse is caring for a 37-year-old patient with a ventricular drain. The nurse continues to assess for complications of rapid cerebrospinal fluid drainage. The signs and symptoms of complications of excessive CSF drainage include:

A)Headache, tachycardia, diaphoresis, and nausea
B)Shortness of breath, rapid heart rate, and hypotension
C)Severe headache, shallow and irregular respirations, and decrease in level of consciousness
D)Vomiting, amnesia, irritability, and dizziness

Question 29

A nurse is reviewing the tests results of a patient with a diagnosis of rule out contusion. What would a computerized tomography CT scan show in a patient who has a contusion?

A)No changes would be seen on a CT scan.
B)Changes in tissue density and evidence of hematomas.
C)Structural shifts within the cranium.
D)Altered blood flow within the area.

Question 30

Why are the signs and symptoms of a hematoma late in coming for the elderly patient verses the younger or middle aged adult?

A)Older adults do not seek medical attention as quickly as young or middle aged adults.
B)Older adults who have cerebral atrophy can tolerate a larger subdural hematoma for a longer time than younger adults.
C)Older adults have a higher pain threshold than younger or middle aged adults.
D)There is no difference in the timing of the signs and symptoms of a patient with a hematoma, regardless of age.

Question 31

Because meningitis is usually related to an infection, what priorities should the nurse highlight in the plan of care?

A)Assess neurological function frequently.
B)Watch for deterioration in the form of change in consciousness, onset of seizures and altered respirations.
C)Monitor fluid balance to avoid both fluid overload and cerebral edema.
D)Follow strict sterile technique when treating head wounds and dressing changes.

Question 32

A 59 year old male with new onset seizures is beginning treatment with Fosphenytoin sodium. What would be a contraindication to begin this drug?

A)History of cardiac disease
B)Sinus bradycardia
C)Gastrointestinal bleed
D)Hypertension

Question 33

What would not be a nursing intervention for the patient with tonic-clonic seizures?

A)Restraining a patient during a seizure.
B)Clear the area of hard objects.
C)Turn the patient's head or turn him on his side.
D)Assist the patient to a lying position and loosen any tight clothing.

Question 34

An experienced Intensive Care Unit nurse is precepting a new nurse to the intensive care unit. What would she explain is the most sensitive indicator of neurological change?

A)Speech
B)Level of consciousness
C)Behavior
D)Cognitive Function

Question 35

A nurse is observing her patient after a computerized tomography (CT) scan to assess whether they are having an adverse reaction to the contrast medium. Signs and symptoms of an adverse reaction would include everything but:

A)Facial flushing
B)Urticaria
C)Bradycardia
D)Restlessness

Question 36

Which type of seizure is characterized by brief, involuntary muscle movements and typically occurs early in the morning?

A)Akinetic
B)Myoclonic
C)Generalized tonic-clonic
D)Jacksonian

Question 37

For a patient with a massive stroke, when is the best time to begin exercises and physical therapy?

A)As soon as possible.
B)Three to four days after the stroke.
C)When the systolic blood pressure falls below 200.
D)After the patient is able to tolerate a mechanical soft diet.

Question 38

For a patient to be considered for Thrombolytic Therapy after an ischemic stroke, when must the Thrombolytic Therapy begin?

A)Within 6 hours of arriving in the emergency room.
B)Within 5 hours of the onset of stroke symptoms.
C)Within 60 minutes after arrival in the emergency room.
D)Within 3 hours after onset of symptoms.

Question 39

Bleeding prevention is important with patients who have been diagnosed with Arteriovenous Malformation. What interventions would not be included in preventing a bleed?

A)Playing the patient's favorite type of music and allow visitors as a distraction.
B)Monitor and control hypertension with medication ordered.
C)Assess for headache and seizure activity.
D)Provide emotional support.

Question 40

A 37 year old woman is admitted to the intensive care unit after experiencing an anterior spinal cord injury status post trauma. What kind of gastrointestinal problems would this patient be at risk for?

A)Uncontrolled nausea and vomiting
B)Gastrointestinal ulcers
C)Constipation
D)Small bowel obstruction

Question 41

The nurse is taking care of a patient who is has been admitted with a diagnosis of "brain dead post traumatic injury." The nurse would expect all of the following clinical manifestations except:

A)Absent papillary responses
B)Slight eye movement during the caloric test.
C)No corneal reflex present.
D)Fixed eyes during the doll's eyes test.

Question 42

A nurse documents on a patient's chart that they are experiencing "reality disturbances" during their admission in the intensive care unit. What would NOT be an example of a "reality disturbance?"

A)Disorientation to time.
B)Inability to decipher whether it is day or night.
C)Increased agitation.
D)Misinterpretation of environmental stimuli.

Question 43

The importance of evidenced based care is gaining credibility and acknowledgement. Nurses in the critical care setting are often learning new techniques and adapting their care to reflect evidenced based outcomes. Evidence based care would be based on all the following sources except:

A)Formal nursing research
B)Clinical knowledge
C)Scientific knowledge
D)Cultural practice

Question 44

The purpose of the multidisciplinary team in the critical care setting is to:

A)Minimize mistakes and errors made on the unit.
B)Assist the nurse in caring for the critically ill unit.
C)Provide holistic care for the patient.
D)Increase the efficiency of the unit and assist in moving patients to a lower level of care.

Question 45

When administering the non-opioid analgesics Acetaminophen, why is the total daily intake monitored and limited to not more than 4 grams/day?

A)More than 4 grams a day may cause injury to the kidneys.
B)No damage will occur unless the patient has sensitivity to acetaminophen.
C)More than 4 grams a day will cause injury to the liver.
D)More than 4 grams /day only adversely affects the geriatric population.

Question 46

The anticoagulant, Heparin, is appropriate to use in all of the following diagnosis except:

A)Embolism prophylaxis
B)Cerebral thrombosis
C)Ischemic Stroke
D)New onset atrial fibrillation

Question 47

Which anticonvulsant may cause Status Epilepticus when abruptly withdrawn?

A)Carbamazepine
B)Fosphenytoin
C)Primidone
D)Valproic acid

Question 48

The nurse is caring for a patient who has been placed in a barbiturate coma. How would the nurse explain the purpose of the coma to a nursing student?

A)It relieves increased intracranial pressure and protects cerebral tissue.
B)It reduces the cerebral blood flow and eases the patient's ability to breathe.
C)It allows the team to perform procedures without agitating the patient.
D)It helps the patient rest from traumatic injury.

Question 49

What is the drug of choice for patients who have been exposed to Bacterial Meningitis?

A)Rifampin
B)Acyclovir
C)Penicillin
D)Ceftriaxone

Question 50

The nurse is taking care of a 48 year old woman who has suffered a closed head injury secondary to a motor vehicle accident. She has started to experience tonic-clonic seizures. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate for this patient?

A)Pad the bedside rails.
B)Ensure that someone is with the patient at all times.
C)Have the equipment for oxygen and suction at the bedside.
D)Place a padded tongue blade on the bedside table.

Question 51

What precautions should be followed when administering Phenytoin?

A)Phenytoin should always be mixed with a dextrose solution when given in an intravenous form.
B)Phenytoin should be given as a pill only.
C)Most people don't react well to Phenytoin so Fosphenytoin is given as an alternate.
D)Phenytoin should not be mixed with a dextrose solution.

Question 52

What teaching is important to include for women who have experienced a spinal cord injury and have questions about having children?

A)After a spinal cord injury, women should not have children.
B)Women can continue to conceive and deliver children but should only use a diaphragm, condom or foam birth control.
C)Women can continue to conceive and deliver children and the type of birth control used should be discussed with their doctor.
D)There are no restrictions on birth control measures for women who have had spinal cord injuries. They should follow up with their doctors.

Question 53

A patient with a T6 spinal cord injury develops autonomic Dysreflexia, an emergency situation that can occur after spinal shock. What is the first line and initial treatment for the patient?

A)Maintain pulmonary integrity through oxygenation delivery and maintaining a patent airway.
B)Remove the noxious stimulant.
C)Assess to see if the patient has taken Viagra within the last 24 hours.
D)Administer pain and anti anxiety medication.

Question 54

What is the drug of choice for treatment of anaphylactic and anaphylactoid shock?

A)Epinephrine
B)Albuterol
C)Diphenhydramine
D)Narcan

Question 55

A nurse is taking care of a patient who has Hemoglobin of 4.2. The nurse hung the second unit of packed red blood cells five minutes ago and the patient is suddenly flushed, breathing rapidly. The monitor shows a heart rate of 150. What is the first thing the nurse should do?

A)Apply oxygen via a non-rebreather mask to the patient.
B)Administer antihistamines or beta 2 agonists.
C)Call the rapid response team.
D)Discontinue the blood.

Question 56

What is the most common cause for Cardiogenic shock?

A)Stroke
B)Hypertensive crisis
C)Myocardial infarction
D)Acute pulmonary edema

Question 57

The patient who is experiencing cardiogenic shock is at risk for what complication?

A)Another myocardial infarction.
B)Pulmonary embolus.
C)Pulmonary edema.
D)Congestive heart failure.

Question 58

A 49 year old male patient has experienced a myocardial infarction with an approximate 55% damage to his ventricle. What interventions would most likely NOT be performed for this patient to avoid the complication of cardiogenic shock?

A)Intraaortic balloon pump
B)Angioplasty
C)Bypass surgery
D)Chest tube insertion

Question 59

Dopamine is a drug commonly used with patients who are going through cardiogenic shock. What is the primary effect of Dopamine?

A)Promotes arterial resistance and reduces systolic blood pressure.
B)Decreases venous resistance and helps decrease angina pain.
C)Increases renal perfusion and increases the pumping action of the heart.
D)Promotes arterial vasodilation and reduces the preload and afterload, increasing the pumping action of the heart.

Question 60

The nurse is evaluating her patient's arterial blood oxygenation level on a patient who is status post a myocardial infarction 2 days ago. What would be the minimal oxygenation saturation level that would reflect adequate oxygen supply to the tissues?

A)88%
B)90%
C)92%
D)95%

Question 61

60)When the patient is being monitored for cardiogenic shock with one of the devices like extracorporeal life support, left ventricular assist device, or intraaortic balloon pump, what lab value must be monitored to prevent these devices from becoming clotted?

A)Potassium and sodium
B)Prothrombin time, International Normalized Ratio (INR)
C)Cardiac markers and Troponin
D)B-type Natriuretic Peptide

Question 62

What is the most common cause of Hypovolemic shock?

A)Loss of fluids by the gastrointestinal tract
B)Hemorrhage
C)Plasma losses
D)Renal losses

Question 63

All of these signs and symptoms are early stages of Hypovolemic shock except for:

A)Tachycardia
B)Hypotension
C)Tachypnea
D)Decreased urinary output

Question 64

What would be priority interventions to restore intravascular volume to the patient suffering from Hypovolemic shock?

A)Administer respiratory treatments and oxygen to maintain patent airway and easier breathing.
B)Administer large bore intravenous catheters in both the right and left antecubital vein.
C)Insert a foley catheter to monitor the urinary output.
D)Take vital signs every 15 minutes.

Question 65

Which patient is at the greatest risk for septic shock?

A)An 84 year old woman with a long term foley catheter, a stage four pressure ulcer on her coccyx and insulin dependent diabetes.
B)A 55 year old woman with pneumonia.
C)A 38 year old woman with asthma and status post day 2 appendectomy.
D)A 63 year old man who had bypass surgery two weeks ago.

Question 66

What is the best way to position the patient who is unstable, hypotensive and in a Hypovolemic state?

A)Supine with the head of bed elevated 30 degrees
B)Supine with the head of bed elevated 90 degrees
C)Supine and flat
D)Prone and flat

Question 67

What medication would most likely be used to prevent agitation in a patient with a traumatic brain injury (TBI)?

A)Mannitol
B)Haldol
C)Diazepam
D)Midazolam

Question 68

What is the most appropriate description of a depressed skull fracture?

A)Localized lesion on the brain; usually limited to the area of impact on the skull
B)Venous bleed under the dura mater
C)Deep tissue injury in the brain that disrupts neural paths and involves white matter
D)This injury may cause a contusion to the brain tissue. It may or may not be associated with a perforated scalp.

Question 69

Which cranial nerve is tested to assess the gag reflex?

A)Trochlear nerve
B)Trigeminal Nerve
C)Vagus Nerve
D)Glossopharyngeal Nerve

Question 70

The Emergency Room has transferred a thirty seven year old man to the intensive care unit after a gunshot wound. The patient has had a blood loss of approximately 900 mL. He is arousable but not alert. His vital signs are, blood pressure 88/45, heart rate of 130 and shallow respirations of 28/minute. What kind of intravenous fluids would be the most appropriate for fluid resuscitation?

A)Normal saline solutions
B)Dextrose and Normal Saline solutions
C)Lactated Ringer's solutions
D)Packed Red Blood Cells

Question 71

According to the Surviving Sepsis Campaign, what is the time frame identified that is essential for treatment to be given to improve survival?

A)Within 1 hour
B)Within 3 hours
C)Within 6 hours
D)Within 12 hours

Question 72

An intensive care nurse answers a rapid response call for a 54 year old female patient on the pre-surgery floor who is scheduled to have a left partial knee replacement later today. When the nurse arrives, she notes the ashen color of the woman's face and profuse sweating. The monitor shows a blood pressure of 170/90, a heart rate of 122 and an oxygen saturation of 92% on 1 liter of oxygen. The admitting nurse states that the woman had been complaining of nausea. What is the most likely cause of the patient's condition?

A)Pulmonary embolism
B)Myocardial infarction
C)Cardiac tamponade
D)Anxiety attack

Question 73

What is the major difference in the clinical presentation of Acute Myocardial Infarction (AMI) compared to angina?

A)Chest pain associated with acute myocardial infarction (AMI) usually occurs abruptly during rest, activity or sleep.
B)Chest pain associated with angina usually occurs abruptly during rest, activity or sleep.
C)Pain associated with angina is not relieved by rest or nitroglycerin.
D)Pain associated with acute myocardial infarction is relieved quickly by rest.

Question 74

When an ischemic event happens, when does myocardial cell death begin?

A)Immediately
B)After 20 minutes of ischemia
C)After 60 minutes of ischemia
D)3-4 hours after ischemia

Question 75

The nurse is evaluating the 12 lead electrocardiograph of a patient who had a myocardial infarction approximately 2 hours ago. The doctor stated the MI was still "evolving." What abnormalities would the nurse expect to see to reflect the ischemic event?

A)ST segment elevation
B)A widening of the QRS interval
C)ST segment depression
D)The emergence of Q waves

Question 76

Which cardiac enzyme is only found in cardiac cells and is indicative of an acute myocardial infarction when elevated?

A)Troponin
B)CK-MB
C)CK
D)Myoglobin

Question 77

The cardiologist is writing orders to start an Amiodarone infusion on a patient being admitted. What of the following diagnosis would an Amiodarone drip be the most appropriate for?

A)Atrial flutter
B)Sinus Tachycardia
C)Uncontrolled atrial fibrillation
D)Third degree heart block

Question 78

Because of the high incidence of myocardial infarctions related to thrombus formation, anticoagulants and Thrombolytic Therapy is considered to be standards of care in the treatment of acute myocardial infarction. When should Thrombolytic Care be started in the patient suspected of having a myocardial infarction?

A)Within one hour of onset of symptoms
B)Within 4 hours of onset of symptoms
C)Within 9 hours of onset of symptoms
D)Within 12 hours of onset of symptoms

Question 79

What signs would be most indicative that Thrombolytic Therapy has been successful in the patient who has had a myocardial infarction and is four hours into Thrombolytic Therapy?

A)A respiratory rate of 22/ minute and an oxygen saturation of 94% on 1 liter of oxygen
B)A heart rate of 102 and a blood pressure of 138/82
C)A return of an elevated ST interval to normal on the electrocardiogram
D)A PR interval less than 0.24 on the electrocardiogram

Question 80

The husband of a 59 year old woman about to begin Thrombolytic Therapy for a myocardial infarction. What is the best way to explain Thrombolytic Therapy to him?

A)"Thrombolytic therapy dissolves clots that occlude coronary arteries and increase blood flow."
B)"Thrombolytic therapy works to prevent any more thrombus from forming and increase the blood flow in the arteries."
C)"Thrombolytic therapy works to open the arteries and restore blood flow in the vessels."
D)"Thrombolytic therapy is estimated to increase the survival rate of people with acute myocardial infarction to 95%."