Deck 8: Growth and Development of the Infant

Question 1

The age range for an infant is defined as which of the following time spans?

A) newborn to 3 months
B) newborn to 6 months
C) 1 month to 1 year
D) 3 months to 15 months

Answer 1

1 month to 1 year

Question 2

The most rapid growth period in a person's life is during which of the following periods?

A) infancy
B) early childhood
C) latency
D) adolescence

Answer 2

infancy

Question 3

The approximate weight gain for babies in the first 6 months of life is:

A) 1/2 pound per month
B) 1 pound per month
C) 1-1/2 pounds per month
D) 2 pounds per month

Answer 3

1-1/2 pounds per month

Question 4

The approximate increase in height for babies is how many inches per month in the first 6 months of life?

A) 1/4
B) 1/2
C) 1
D) 1-1/2

Question 5

A mother asks the nurse when a soft spot on the baby's head will close. The best response by the nurse is which of the following responses?

A) "It will close in about a year."
B) "There are two soft spots called the anterior and posterior fontanels, which will close by the time the baby is about a year old."
C) "It will close in 6 months."
D) "The soft spot you are talking about will close by 12 to 18 months of age. Another soft spot will close by 2 months."

Question 6

Birth weights differ with ethnic backgrounds. Which of the following babies are typically the largest at birth, compared to the others?

A) European American
B) Native American
C) Chinese
D) Japanese

Question 7

A mother asks you when her baby will be able to pick up and hold toys. You would explain to her that in order to be able to willingly grasp an object such as a toy, the baby must first:

A) have the ability to release the object
B) double the birth weight
C) lose the involuntary grasp reflex
D) be able to sit up

Question 8

Gross motor development is best exemplified by the ability to:

A) use the muscles of the hands to grasp toys
B) maintain balance, postural control, and locomotion
C) use the facial muscles to smile, cry, and frown
D) open the hand, look at the fingers, and place them in the mouth

Question 9

The mother asks the nurse when her baby will be able to hold his head up. The best response by the nurse is that the baby will be able to hold his head up at:

A) 3 months
B) 4 months and also use the forearms for support
C) 6 months, if the baby is not overfed and overweight
D) 7 months

Question 10

A mother notices that her 6-month-old child grasps things such as a spoon in her palms. This mother asks when her daughter will be able grasp a spoon between the thumb and fingers. She has been trying to teach the child this skill without success. The best response by the nurse would be:

A) "The pincer grasp will be mastered at about 8 months. It would be best to let the child grasp the spoon with the palm, as it is too early for the pincer grasp."
B) "Have your child play with an older child who uses the pincer grasp, and your baby will likely pick up the skill from the other child in a short while."
C) "Keep working and teaching. The baby will soon pick this skill up if you just keep pushing."
D) "Let's do some developmental testing to see in what other areas your baby is behind in development."

Question 11

In assessing the amount of head lag in an infant, the nurse will:

A) see how long the infant can hold his or her own head up, measuring the time in seconds
B) pull the infant up by the arms from a supine to a sitting position
C) measure the distance from the baby's fingertips to the ear
D) hold the baby upright in the nurse's lap and let the head fall back against the nurse's chest

Question 12

Infant head control is judged by the:

A) amount of neck wrinkling
B) ability to hold head without support
C) presence or absence of head lag
D) rigidity of the neck and head

Question 13

At how many months of age does the infant have good head control and no head lag while sitting?

A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 6

Question 14

Locomotion, or the ability to move from place to place without assistance, is dependent on:

A) developed muscles in the upper arm
B) head control and sitting without support
C) leg muscle strength
D) the ability to roll over

Question 15

A mother asks the nurse to tell her what creeping is. She is expecting her baby to crawl any day and another mother says that her baby creeps. The nurse explains that creeping is when the baby:

A) moves on hands and knees with the abdomen off the floor
B) crawls using the elbows to scoot across the floor
C) draws the legs up, stretches out, and repeats the process
D) stands and walks on the toes with heels off the ground

Question 16

A mother seems concerned as she asks why her infant is walking sideways while holding onto furniture. The best response by the nurse is:

A) "You need to get a neurological consultation for your baby, to rule out some pathology."
B) "If you hold the baby's hands while the baby walks, you can break the baby of this habit."
C) "Infants start walking sideways while holding onto furniture before they walk or stand alone."
D) "You need to make an appointment with your pediatrician and have this problem checked out."

Question 17

The term cruising is best described by which of the following statements?

A) deliberate steps while holding onto something
B) going as fast as possible at this age
C) looking for something to get into while moving
D) moving while in a battery-powered child's vehicle

Question 18

A mother asks the nurse to explain what fine motor skills are. She has heard that it has something to do with the ability to draw and color within the lines in school-aged children, and she is curious to know what this means in an infant. The nurse would explain that fine motor development is the ability to:

A) write and draw and that infants do not have any fine motor skills
B) coordinate hand-to-eye movement in an orderly and progressive manner
C) pick up items and move them from place to place in a voluntary fashion
D) use all of the fingers equally well and both hands in a coordinated method

Question 19

The nurse notices a baby in the waiting room. The baby is sitting on the mother's lap and picking up small green peas out of a bowl with a true pincer grasp and eating them unassisted. The nurse knows that this baby is at least how many months old?

A) 4 to 6
B) 7 to 9
C) 10 to 12
D) 13 to 15

Question 20

The very first sucking by an infant occurs because of:

A) the mother stroking the cheeks
B) an accidental reflex of rooting
C) a purposeful seeking of pleasure
D) hunger and a message to the brain

Question 21

When a mother plays peek-a-boo with a baby, the mother is helping teach the baby which of the following?

A) object permanence
B) coordination
C) visual skill
D) vocal rhythm

Question 22

Which of the following statements best describes object permanence?

A) An object is always within eyesight.
B) Materials do not get eaten or thrown away.
C) The mother makes certain that favorite toys remain with a child.
D) The infant realizes an object continues to exist even when out of sight.

Question 23

Which of the following behaviors by an infant best exemplifies the beginning of reasoning?

A) crying for food or attention
B) moving any obstacles to find a hidden object
C) saying bye-bye in response to others saying bye-bye
D) blowing kisses or clapping the hands

Question 24

The nurse is assessing an infant who is 10 months old to determine if the infant is in Piaget's fourth substage of sensorimotor development called coordination of secondary schema. Which of the following actions would indicate to the nurse that the infant is indeed in this fourth substage?

A) banging a toy to produce a sound
B) looking and grasping for a favorite toy
C) putting blocks of different shapes into a container with matching holes of varied shapes
D) putting objects and substances into the mouth and spitting out those that taste bad

Question 25

According to Erikson, the psychosocial development of an infant is centered around the concept of:

A) trust versus mistrust
B) pleasure versus pain
C) growth versus failure to grow
D) love versus hate

Question 26

The nurse is working with caregivers who are very concerned that their new infant will grow up with a healthy sense of trust. What areas of assessment and teaching would the nurse most focus on in working with these caregivers?

A) knowledge of the physical development of children in the first 3 years
B) meeting the infant's basic needs and demonstrating caring behaviors
C) extended family, friends, and other sources of family support
D) child-rearing philosophies and the educational levels of the caregivers

Question 27

Which of the following behaviors by the caregivers would facilitate a child learning to trust when the child is hospitalized?

A) having the child stay with a variety of other people soon after discharge from the hospital to help the child overcome anxiety around new people
B) establishing a solid good-bye routine
C) letting the child know they will miss him or her
D) providing a list of the child's usual home routines, cues given when frustrated, response to comforting methods, and favorite games and music to the health team

Question 28

The parents are interviewing people who have applied to their advertisement for a caregiver for their 6-week-old baby in preparation for the mother's return to work. In addition to asking about the applicant's experience, which of the following questions by the parents would most help them assess an applicant's ability to provide a trusting environment?

A) "If the baby is fussy, what will you do?"
B) "How many children have you cared for at a time?"
C) "What is your training in child care?"
D) "What was your childhood like?"

Question 29

Which of the following factors is the best indicator of an infant's ability to adapt to the changes required in growth and development without creating undue stress on the body?

A) the infant has been breastfed
B) the caregivers are older
C) the infant's health status
D) the presence of siblings

Question 30

The nurse would instruct the mother of a baby under 2 months to contact the health care provider if the baby's temperature is at which of the following readings or higher?

A) 37.2 degrees C (99.0 degrees F)
B) 37.6 degrees C (99.6 degrees F)
C) 37.9 degrees C (100.2 degrees F)
D) 38.9 degrees C (102 degrees F)

Question 31

A mother discovers that her baby is suddenly listless. Which of the following actions would best indicate that she understood the information the nurse gave her before she was discharged from the hospital with her baby?

A) bathing the baby in alcohol
B) gently shaking the baby and calling the baby's name
C) observing the baby for 2 hours to see if the baby gets better or worse
D) calling the pediatrician or nurse practitioner immediately

Question 32

A father asks when the baby will have to go see the pediatrician. From her reading in the baby book as well as instructions from the nurse, his wife tells him that these visits are normally scheduled at which of the following ages?

A) 2 weeks, and 2, 4, 6, 9, and 12 months
B) every month for 1 year
C) every 2 weeks for 2 months, when monthly
D) 3, 5, 7, and 9 months

Question 33

A mother calls the pediatrician's office and asks the nurse if she should bring the baby for scheduled immunizations. The baby has a clear nasal discharge and a little cough, and the mother thinks perhaps the baby should not get immunizations if he has a cold. The nurse's best response is:

A) "You are correct not to bring the baby to the office and expose other children."
B) "Let's wait until the baby is free of these symptoms. There is no hurry for these immunizations."
C) "Immunizations are not usually contraindicated with a mild illness such as a cold."
D) "Take the baby's temperature. If it is not over 38.8 degrees C (101.8 degrees F), we will go ahead with the immunizations."

Question 34

Most common reactions to immunizations last how many days?

A) 1 to 2
B) 3 to 4
C) 5 to 6
D) 7 to 8

Question 35

The general treatment of common reactions to immunizations is:

A) cool alcohol sponges for 15 minutes of every hour
B) heat to the injection site
C) acetaminophen every 4 to 6 hours for a total of 3 doses
D) Benadryl 50 mg every 4 to 6 hours for a total of 3 doses

Question 36

The mother asks the nurse to describe the common reactions to immunizations. The nurse tells the mother that they usually consist of redness, swelling, and tenderness at the injection site, along with:

A) low-grade fever
B) chills
C) fever of 38.3-38.9 degrees C (101-102 degrees F)
D) seizures

Question 37

Newborns have which of the following visual acuities?

A) 20/100-20/200
B) 20/90-20/220
C) 20/60-20/200
D) 20/20-20/100

Question 38

Studies based on attention time given to an image have shown that infants prefer which of the following images?

A) small animals
B) large animals
C) geometric shapes
D) the human face

Question 39

The nurse is assessing a small infant and notices that when the child's head is moved to the right or left, the eyes follow and do not lag behind as they normally do in a small infant. The nurse would document this finding as:

A) bilateral lag syndrome
B) absence of doll's eye reflex
C) absence of horizontal vibratory motion
D) follow-through visual abnormality

Question 40

While assessing an infant, the nurse notices that the child does not watch objects when they are dropped. The nurse will most suspect which of the following problems that will be further assessed?

A) visual problems
B) absent or diminished hearing
C) decreased energy
D) infant depression

Question 41

Who is usually the first to notice that something is wrong with vision or hearing in an infant?

A) infant's caregivers
B) pediatrician
C) nurse
D) relatives

Question 42

The baby teeth or primary teeth of a baby are also called:

A) cuspids
B) incisors
C) deciduous
D) molars

Question 43

The timing of the eruption of teeth may vary, but it usually begins around which of the following ages?

A) 3 to 4 months
B) 6 to 8 months
C) 1 year
D) 1-1/2 years

Question 44

According to the American Academy of Pediatrics, the use of fluoride supplements to babies whose home drinking water does not contain at least 0.3 parts per million (ppm) concentration should begin at which of the following ages?

A) 3 months
B) 6 months
C) 1 year
D) 2 years

Question 45

A type of dental caries that is seen in infants who drink a bottle of formula or juice at nap time or bedtime, or in infants who breastfeed for prolonged times, is called:

A) rapid deciduous tooth decay
B) nursing or bottle-mouth caries
C) sleep-time dental caries
D) sugar-source mouth caries

Question 46

A caregiver calls the pediatrician's office and is desperate to talk with the pediatrician or the nurse. The baby has red swollen gums and is teething and fussy. The caregiver wants to know what intervention to take to soothe the irritable baby. The nurse will most likely suggest:

A) applying a small heated pad to the face
B) chewing on ice chips
C) applying an alcohol rub to the gums
D) giving an ice cube in a washcloth or zwieback toast

Question 47

How many kilocalories per ounce do breast milk and most formulas provide?

A) 10
B) 20
C) 30
D) 40

Question 48

The nutritional requirements of a newborn are how many kilocalories per kilogram per day?

A) 90
B) 100
C) 110
D) 120

Question 49

You are to determine how many kilocalories per day (kcal/day) an infant who weighs 4.5 kilograms needs. The number of kcal/day would be which of the following?

A) 310
B) 420
C) 540
D) 660

Question 50

A caregiver asks the nurse when his baby can have semisolid foods like infant cereal and applesauce. The nurse replies that the introduction of semisolid foods usually occurs between:

A) 1 and 2 months
B) 4 and 6 months
C) 7 and 9 months
D) 10 and 11 months

Question 51

The pediatrician suggests that the caregivers begin to introduce iron-fortified rice cereal as the first solid food to their baby. The mother later asks the nurse why the health care practitioner wants her to give the baby iron-fortified rice cereal instead of some other food. The nurse's best response to this question is that this particular cereal:

A) is the easiest to digest and least likely to cause allergies
B) does not have many calories and won't decrease the baby's milk intake
C) is an important bulk to help the baby have semisolid bowel movements
D) is inexpensive and high in vitamins and minerals

Question 52

The nurse is talking with caregivers regarding the introduction of new foods to their baby, who has been on cereals and is now ready to start on vegetables and fruits. The most important advice the nurse will give the caregivers is to:

A) place up to three foods on the spoon at one time with an old favorite on the front of the spoon
B) introduce vegetables first, introduce one new vegetable per day until all vegetables are introduced, and then introduce fruits
C) start feeding fruits and vegetables very slowly, one spoon per day
D) introduce one new food at a time at 4- to 7-day intervals

Question 53

Unless there is some contraindication, the nurse knows to check with the caregivers to be certain that most fruits and vegetables have been added, as well as strained meats, by the time that the infant is how many months old?

A) 5 to 7
B) 8 to 10
C) 11 to 13
D) 14 to 16

Question 54

The nurse advises the mother to give fruit juices along with fruit during the baby's feedings. The purpose of this fruit juice is mainly to:

A) prevent constipation
B) hydrate the baby
C) enhance absorption of iron in the cereal
D) minimize leaching of calcium from the body

Question 55

The mother asks the nurse if she can stop giving the baby iron-fortified rice cereal at age 13 months, as the baby prefers other foods. The best response by the nurse would be which of the following?

A) "Yes, that is not a problem, as your baby is now producing enough iron."
B) "Due to the baby's need for iron, you need to continue this cereal until the baby is 18 months old."
C) "You could substitute potatoes for the iron-fortified rice cereal."
D) "Give the baby whatever the baby prefers, as calories are more important than content at this age."

Question 56

The mother of an 8-month-old infant tells the nurse that the baby is eating almost no baby cereal or baby food but nurses very well. The nurse would advise the mother to:

A) not worry, as this is perfectly normal with a breastfed baby
B) remove the breast halfway through the feeding, give semisolid foods, then resume breastfeeding
C) feed the baby the baby food when the infant is hungry and follow this with breastfeeding
D) gradually decrease breastfeeding in number and length of time until the baby is eating sufficient baby food and cereal

Question 57

When teaching the caregivers about the selection of a baby's semisolid food, the nurse would tell them to:

A) select jars of baby food with salt content under 400 micrograms (mcg) per jar
B) add a little regular refined white sugar to the baby food, as babies prefer sweet-tasting foods
C) buy baby foods with added artificial sweetener or add one packet per jar
D) do not add sugar or salt to a baby's food and select products preferably with no added salt or sugar

Question 58

The nurse is working with the caregivers of a 6-month-old baby. Both caregivers are extremely neat and have talked about the difficult adjustment to changes the baby has brought to their orderly and scheduled lives. In giving anticipatory guidance, at some appropriate point, the nurse will talk about what it will be like when the child wants to eat semisolid foods. The nurse's most important focus in this anticipatory guidance will be:

A) how messy the baby will be during feeding time
B) ways to keep the mealtime messes to a minimum
C) the caregivers' psychological needs and support of each other during this time
D) the baby's need to increase autonomy and to explore the texture and smell of food

Question 59

In giving anticipatory guidance to caregivers about infant self-feeding, the nurse would suggest that the caregivers do which of the following things?

A) Place the high chair in an area that is carpeted.
B) Hold the baby on the lap during feedings.
C) Place the high chair on a washable surface.
D) Put off self-feeding as long as possible.

Question 60

If a baby is weaned too soon, which of the following problems is most likely to develop?

A) weight loss
B) iron-deficiency anemia
C) vitamin D deficiency
D) delayed mobility

Question 61

According to La Leche League International, what can happen if a pacifier is introduced before the nursing relationship has been established?

A) nipple confusion or refusal to breastfeed
B) pacifier may choke the infant
C) continued use of the pacifier into grade school
D) reliance on the pacifier for soothing instead of the breast

Question 62

It is important for the nurse to encourage caregivers to do which of the following while changing, feeding, or interacting with a baby?

A) Talk softly in baby talk.
B) Provide a quiet time without talk.
C) Play music.
D) Talk to the baby in adult talk.

Question 63

How can the nurse best assess the infant's language development and detect any potential problems?

A) Teach caregivers to do the word count test.
B) Use the Denver II Screening Test.
C) Have simple observational periods.
D) Use the Minnesota Multiphasic Test.

Question 64

The way a child behaviorally interacts with the surrounding environment is called by which of the following terms?

A) introvert or extrovert
B) temperament
C) risk seeking
D) environmental interest

Question 65

The nurse can help caregivers understand the uniqueness of a child's personality and provide a guide for child-rearing techniques by assessing and explaining the:

A) nine attributes of temperament and the characteristics of the personality type
B) caregiver's personalities and identifying any underlying pathology
C) ten personality traits associated with the introvert-extrovert scale
D) wake-sleep pattern and percentage of time a child spends without crying

Question 66

A 2-week-old baby's caregivers seek help from the nurse in understanding the baby's recent unexplained episodes of crying and inability to be consoled, no matter what they try. The nurse explains that this is probably colic. The caregivers ask: "What causes colic? Have we been doing something wrong?" The nurse's best response is:

A) "In most cases we don't really know what causes colic, so don't blame yourselves. We will do some checking to see if it might be an infection."
B) "I don't know if you have been doing something wrong or not. Let's look at what routines you have and your parenting practices."
C) "Do you think you have been doing anything wrong?"
D) "What have you been feeding this baby, and how much at a time?"

Question 67

The caregivers of a colicky baby tell the nurse that they are getting exhausted trying to calm their baby and get the baby to stop crying. They ask the nurse when all this colicky behavior will stop. The best answer by the nurse is that colic stops at approximately:

A) 6 weeks
B) 8 weeks
C) 10 weeks
D) 16 weeks

Question 68

The nurse teaches the caregivers of a colicky baby some comfort measures. Which of the following measures would the nurse most likely teach them to use?

A) Place a garlic-and-oil potion around the infant's neck, to be worn 24 hours a day.
B) Use a front carrier and white noise and swaddle the baby, or take the baby for a car ride.
C) Place the infant on the stomach (prone) to sleep as long as it has the symptoms of colic.
D) Keep the infant's stomach full at all times so there is no room for any gas to form.

Question 69

The best way for the nurse to help caregivers prevent sleep problems in a baby is to:

A) advise caregivers to cosleep (have the baby sleep with caregivers)
B) tell caregivers to respond immediately if baby awakes and begins to cry
C) assist caregiver to understand the infant's individual needs
D) limit napping during the day and keep the baby up later at night

Question 70

Based on a recommendation from the American Academy of Pediatrics, the nurse will advise the caregivers to do which of the following to help prevent sudden infant death syndrome?

A) Have the baby sleep in a prone position.
B) Have the baby sleep in a supine or side-lying position.
C) Provide hourly checks while the baby is sleeping.
D) Avoid the use of a pacifier at night.

Question 71

Which of the following infants is at greatest risk of sudden infant death syndrome?

A) male, full-term, 7 months old
B) female, full-term, 8 months old
C) male twin, premature, 4 months old
D) female, single birth, 4 months old

Question 72

The incidence of sudden infant death syndrome is highest in which of the following groups of people?

A) Hispanics
B) Northern Europeans
C) Canadians and first-generation Asian-Americans
D) American Indians and African Americans

Question 73

The infant will need ____________________ kilocalories per day.

Question 74

After the nurse has identified the infant's caloric needs for the day, the nurse is concerned about how much fluid the same infant will need for the day. The infant will require ____________________ to 810 milliliters (mL) of fluid per day.

Question 75

A nurse is educating the parents of a 3-month-old infant as to what symptoms should prompt them to contact their health care provider. Which of the following clinical presentations should the nurse suggest be called to the attention of the health care provider? Select all that apply.

A) temperature of 37.9 degrees C (100.2 degrees F)
B) inconsolable crying
C) increased activity and alertness
D) vomiting

Question 76

A nurse is educating the parents of a child who just received the diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis (DTaP) vaccination. The nurse informs the parents that which of the following common reactions are to be expected for the next 1 to 2 days? Select all that apply.

A) irritability
B) temperature of 38.9 degrees C (102 degrees F) or greater
C) redness, tenderness, and swelling at the injection site
D) mild loss of appetite

Question 77

A nurse has instructed the parents of an infant to introduce solid foods one at a time, while carefully observing for signs of food allergies. Which of the following signs and symptoms may be suggestive of food allergies? Select all that apply.

A) diarrhea
B) abdominal pain
C) congestion
D) rashes