Deck 15: Transport, Home Care, and Noninvasive Ventilatory Devices
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Deck 15: Transport, Home Care, and Noninvasive Ventilatory Devices
1
Which of the following modes of operation are offered by the Airon pNeuton?
1)Volume-controlled intermittent mandatory ventilation
2)Pressure-controlled intermittent mandatory ventilation
3)Continuous positive airway pressure
4)Pressure-regulated volume control
A) 1,2,and 3
B) 2,3,and 4
C) 1,3,and 4
D) 2 and 3
1)Volume-controlled intermittent mandatory ventilation
2)Pressure-controlled intermittent mandatory ventilation
3)Continuous positive airway pressure
4)Pressure-regulated volume control
A) 1,2,and 3
B) 2,3,and 4
C) 1,3,and 4
D) 2 and 3
A
The pNeuton offers nonsynchronized volume-controlled intermittent mandatory ventilation or pressure-controlled intermittent mandatory ventilation and positive end-expiratory pressure/continuous positive airway pressure.
The pNeuton offers nonsynchronized volume-controlled intermittent mandatory ventilation or pressure-controlled intermittent mandatory ventilation and positive end-expiratory pressure/continuous positive airway pressure.
2
What modes are available on the MVP-10?
1)Pressure-controlled assist/control
2)Continuous positive airway pressure
3)Pressure-regulated volume control
4)Nonsynchronous intermittent mandatory ventilation
A) 1 and 3
B) 2 and 4
C) 1 and 4
D) 2 and 3
1)Pressure-controlled assist/control
2)Continuous positive airway pressure
3)Pressure-regulated volume control
4)Nonsynchronous intermittent mandatory ventilation
A) 1 and 3
B) 2 and 4
C) 1 and 4
D) 2 and 3
B
The MVP-10 has two modes of ventilation,nonsynchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation and continuous positive airway pressure.
The MVP-10 has two modes of ventilation,nonsynchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation and continuous positive airway pressure.
3
The internal direct current battery of the Bio-Med Crossvent operates for approximately ____ hours.
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8
C
The internal direct current battery is operational for approximately 6 hours when fully charged.
The internal direct current battery is operational for approximately 6 hours when fully charged.
4
Which of the following is true concerning the difference between the Uni-Vent 750 and the Eagle 754?
A) The Eagle 754 can be used for noninvasive ventilation.
B) The Eagle 754 has a built-in compressor with a blender.
C) The 750 is listed in the Strategic National Stockpile.
D) The 750 has a gas consumption of 3 L/min for its control logic.
A) The Eagle 754 can be used for noninvasive ventilation.
B) The Eagle 754 has a built-in compressor with a blender.
C) The 750 is listed in the Strategic National Stockpile.
D) The 750 has a gas consumption of 3 L/min for its control logic.
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5
Increasing the amplitude control on the Percussionaire Bronchotron TXP Ventilator would:
A) Increase the fractional inspired oxygen
B) Decrease the frequency
C) Increase carbon dioxide removal
D) Increase air entrainment
A) Increase the fractional inspired oxygen
B) Decrease the frequency
C) Increase carbon dioxide removal
D) Increase air entrainment
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6
The estimated internal direct current battery on the Uni-Vent 750 can provide ____ hours of operation.
A) 3
B) 6
C) 9
D) 12
A) 3
B) 6
C) 9
D) 12
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7
During a patient transport with the Impact Uni-Vent 750,the respiratory therapist hears a whistling sound. What is the most likely cause of this whistling?
A) The "PEEP not set" alarm is currently active.
B) The "battery low/fail" alarm is being violated.
C) The patient flow is greater than the set flow.
D) The demand valve has opened, and gas is passing through.
A) The "PEEP not set" alarm is currently active.
B) The "battery low/fail" alarm is being violated.
C) The patient flow is greater than the set flow.
D) The demand valve has opened, and gas is passing through.
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8
During transport,an infant who is using a Bio-Med MVP-10 unit in the intermittent mandatory ventilation mode with 60% fractional inspired oxygen requires 3 L/min of oxygen and 2 L/min of air to maintain the fractional inspired oxygen and desired peak pressure.An E cylinder with 2200 pounds per square inch gauge of oxygen would last _____ minutes.
A) 88.8
B) 155.5
C) 207.3
D) 314.3
A) 88.8
B) 155.5
C) 207.3
D) 314.3
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9
A respiratory rate of 40 breaths/min is required to ventilate an infant with an MVP-10.The inspiratory and expiratory time settings that would provide 40 breaths/min are which of the following?
Inspiratory Time Expiratory Time
A) 0.25 s 0.9 s
B) 0.5 s 1 s
C) 0.75 s 2 s
D) 0.95 s 1.75 s
Inspiratory Time Expiratory Time
A) 0.25 s 0.9 s
B) 0.5 s 1 s
C) 0.75 s 2 s
D) 0.95 s 1.75 s
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10
The amount of gas consumed by the Percussionaire Bronchotron TXP ventilator is ____ L/min.
A) 2 to 4
B) 3 to 8
C) 6 to 10
D) 8 to 12
A) 2 to 4
B) 3 to 8
C) 6 to 10
D) 8 to 12
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11
The pneumatic control logic of the Airon pNeuton requires a flow of _____ L/min to operate.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
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12
The operation time for a Dräger Oxylog 3000 with a lithium ion battery is ___ hours.
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6
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13
The Dräger Oxylog 3000 can provide which of the following modes of operation?
1)Pressure-controlled ventilation+/pressure support
2)Continuous mandatory ventilation/continuous mandatory ventilationₐssᵢst
3)Pressure-regulated volume control
4)Control
A) 1 and 2
B) 2 and 3
C) 3 and 4
D) 1 and 4
1)Pressure-controlled ventilation+/pressure support
2)Continuous mandatory ventilation/continuous mandatory ventilationₐssᵢst
3)Pressure-regulated volume control
4)Control
A) 1 and 2
B) 2 and 3
C) 3 and 4
D) 1 and 4
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14
How is the minute ventilation high alarm (MVhigh)set on the Dräger Oxylog 3000?
A) Operator-set at 2 L/min above the set minute ventilation
B) Operator-set at 3 L/min above the measured minute ventilation
C) Automatically set at 3 L/min above the set minute ventilation
D) Automatically set at 2 L/min above the measured minute ventilation
A) Operator-set at 2 L/min above the set minute ventilation
B) Operator-set at 3 L/min above the measured minute ventilation
C) Automatically set at 3 L/min above the set minute ventilation
D) Automatically set at 2 L/min above the measured minute ventilation
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15
Pressure plateau ventilation on the Impact Uni-Vent Eagle 754 is most similar to which of the following modes of ventilation?
A) Airway pressure release ventilation
B) Pressure-regulated volume control
C) Pressure-controlled continuous mandatory ventilation
D) DuoPAP
A) Airway pressure release ventilation
B) Pressure-regulated volume control
C) Pressure-controlled continuous mandatory ventilation
D) DuoPAP
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16
The Percussionaire Bronchotron TXP ventilator requires which of the following power sources for conventional operation?
1)9-V battery
2)Alternating current 120 V
3)4 AA batteries
4)30-psi gas source
A) 4 only
B) 2 and 4
C) 1,3,and 4
D) 1,2,and 3
1)9-V battery
2)Alternating current 120 V
3)4 AA batteries
4)30-psi gas source
A) 4 only
B) 2 and 4
C) 1,3,and 4
D) 1,2,and 3
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17
Which of the following statements is true concerning the antiasphyxia valve of the Uni-Vent 750?
A) The valve opens with a -1 cm H₂O pressure.
B) The valve opens in the synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation mode for spontaneous breathing.
C) The valve can open in the control mode for spontaneous breathing.
D) The valve functions as the ventilator's demand valve for breath triggering.
A) The valve opens with a -1 cm H₂O pressure.
B) The valve opens in the synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation mode for spontaneous breathing.
C) The valve can open in the control mode for spontaneous breathing.
D) The valve functions as the ventilator's demand valve for breath triggering.
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18
Which of the following statements is true concerning the Bio-Med Crossvent?
A) The battery duration is 4 hours when fully charged.
B) None of the Crossvent models can ventilate infants.
C) Noninvasive ventilation is one of the modes of ventilation.
D) Volume- and pressure-controlled assist/control and synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation are available.
A) The battery duration is 4 hours when fully charged.
B) None of the Crossvent models can ventilate infants.
C) Noninvasive ventilation is one of the modes of ventilation.
D) Volume- and pressure-controlled assist/control and synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation are available.
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19
The bias flow on the Airon pNeuton is _____ L/min.
A) 3
B) 5
C) 8
D) 10
A) 3
B) 5
C) 8
D) 10
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20
What alarm(s)is (are)on the Airon pNeuton ventilator?
1)Low positive end-expiratory pressure/continuous positive airway pressure
2)Patient disconnect
3)High patient pressure
4)Low oxygen inlet pressure
A) 2 only
B) 1 and 4
C) 2 and 4
D) 1,2,3,and 4
1)Low positive end-expiratory pressure/continuous positive airway pressure
2)Patient disconnect
3)High patient pressure
4)Low oxygen inlet pressure
A) 2 only
B) 1 and 4
C) 2 and 4
D) 1,2,3,and 4
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21
Using the figure,what amount of oxygen is necessary to be bled into a Pulmonetic Systems LTV 1000,with a minute volume of 10 L/min,to achieve a fractional inspired oxygen level of 70%?

A) 5 L/min
B) 8 L/min
C) 10 L/min
D) 15 L/min

A) 5 L/min
B) 8 L/min
C) 10 L/min
D) 15 L/min
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22
Which of the following statements concerning the Pulmonetic Systems LTV 1000 ventilator is true?
A) An external positive end-expiratory pressure valve must be added.
B) There is a backup pressure trigger of -3 cm H₂O.
C) The square-flow waveform is automatically set.
D) Volume-targeted breaths are the only breath type available.
A) An external positive end-expiratory pressure valve must be added.
B) There is a backup pressure trigger of -3 cm H₂O.
C) The square-flow waveform is automatically set.
D) Volume-targeted breaths are the only breath type available.
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23
The fractional inspired oxygen on a Dräger Carinahome ventilator is determined by which of the following?
A) Fractional inspired oxygen setting on the ventilator
B) The position of the air-mix control on the ventilator
C) The type of optional valve being used and the oxygen flow rate
D) The oxygen flow rate being bled into the low-pressure input port
A) Fractional inspired oxygen setting on the ventilator
B) The position of the air-mix control on the ventilator
C) The type of optional valve being used and the oxygen flow rate
D) The oxygen flow rate being bled into the low-pressure input port
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24
During the transport of a patient being ventilated with a Newport HT50 ventilator,the low airway pressure/apnea indicator begins to blink red and the "check proximal line" alarm is triggered. What is the most appropriate action?
A) Suction the patient's airway.
B) Increase the pressure limit.
C) Check the circuit's integrity.
D) Switch the mode of ventilation.
A) Suction the patient's airway.
B) Increase the pressure limit.
C) Check the circuit's integrity.
D) Switch the mode of ventilation.
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25
On the Smiths Medical Pneupac ventiPAC ventilator,which of the following would provide a 15 breaths/min respiratory rate?
A) Set inspiratory-to-expiratory ratio at 1:4
B) Set the rate control = 15 breaths/min
C) Set inspiratory time at 1.5 s and expiratory time at 2.5 s
D) Set flow rate control = 30 L/min, tidal volume = 500 mL, and expiratory time = 3 seconds
A) Set inspiratory-to-expiratory ratio at 1:4
B) Set the rate control = 15 breaths/min
C) Set inspiratory time at 1.5 s and expiratory time at 2.5 s
D) Set flow rate control = 30 L/min, tidal volume = 500 mL, and expiratory time = 3 seconds
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26
During volume-targeted assist/control with a Pulmonetic Systems LTV 1000,the tidal volume is set at 800 mL,and inspiratory time is set at 1 s.Inspiration will end when which of the following is reached?
A) Tidal volume of 800 mL
B) Inspiratory time of 1 s
C) Set pressure limit
D) Flow rate of 24 L/min
A) Tidal volume of 800 mL
B) Inspiratory time of 1 s
C) Set pressure limit
D) Flow rate of 24 L/min
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27
Which of the following situations is most likely to activate the occlusion alarm on the Newport Medical Instruments HT50 ventilator?
A) Increased airway resistance
B) Secretions in the patient circuit
C) Water in the proximal sensor line
D) Patient biting the endotracheal tube
A) Increased airway resistance
B) Secretions in the patient circuit
C) Water in the proximal sensor line
D) Patient biting the endotracheal tube
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28
Which of the following is a transport ventilator that can deliver high-frequency ventilation?
A) Percussionaire Bronchotron TXP
B) Impact Uni-Vent Eagle 754
C) Pulmonetic Systems LTV 1200
D) Dräger Oxylog 3000
A) Percussionaire Bronchotron TXP
B) Impact Uni-Vent Eagle 754
C) Pulmonetic Systems LTV 1200
D) Dräger Oxylog 3000
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29
Oxygen can be added to the Dräger Carinahome ventilator by which of the following methods?
A) Connecting to an external oxygen blender
B) Connecting oxygen to the low-pressure input port
C) Switching on the air-mix control, and setting the oxygen concentration
D) Hooking up both air and oxygen high-pressure hoses to source gas
A) Connecting to an external oxygen blender
B) Connecting oxygen to the low-pressure input port
C) Switching on the air-mix control, and setting the oxygen concentration
D) Hooking up both air and oxygen high-pressure hoses to source gas
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30
The transport ventilator that can be used on newborns is the:
A) Airon pNeuton
B) Uni-Vent Eagle 754
C) Bio-Med Crossvent 4
D) Pulmonetic Systems LTV 1000
A) Airon pNeuton
B) Uni-Vent Eagle 754
C) Bio-Med Crossvent 4
D) Pulmonetic Systems LTV 1000
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31
The inspiratory-to-expiratory ratio would be 1:1.5 for _____ breaths/min on the Percussionaire Bronchotron TXP Ventilator.
A) 155
B) 200
C) 275
D) 500
A) 155
B) 200
C) 275
D) 500
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32
Which of the following statements concerning the Newport HT50 ventilator is true?
A) It requires both an oxygen and an air source to operate properly.
B) It can be used to ventilate patients who weigh more than 5 kg.
C) The internal battery can sustain ventilator operation for 10 hours.
D) The "battery empty" message is activated when there are less than 15 minutes left.
A) It requires both an oxygen and an air source to operate properly.
B) It can be used to ventilate patients who weigh more than 5 kg.
C) The internal battery can sustain ventilator operation for 10 hours.
D) The "battery empty" message is activated when there are less than 15 minutes left.
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33
The apnea alarm on the Newport HT50 ventilator is triggered after how much time?
A) Operator-selected value
B) Ventilator set at 15 seconds
C) Ventilator set at 20 seconds
D) Ventilator set at 30 seconds
A) Operator-selected value
B) Ventilator set at 15 seconds
C) Ventilator set at 20 seconds
D) Ventilator set at 30 seconds
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34
Which transport ventilator does not require an external blender to regulate precisely the fractional inspired oxygen?
A) Uni-Vent Eagle 754
B) Bio-Med MVP-10
C) Bio-Med Crossvent
D) Airon pNeuton
A) Uni-Vent Eagle 754
B) Bio-Med MVP-10
C) Bio-Med Crossvent
D) Airon pNeuton
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35
What inspiratory flow and inspiratory time would produce a tidal volume of 750 mL on the Smiths Medical Pneupac ventiPAC ventilator?
Inspiratory flow Inspiratory time
1)0.33 L/s 1 s
2)0.5 L/s 1.5 s
3)0.75 L/s 1 s
4)0.45 L/s 2 s
A) 3 only
B) 2 and 3
C) 1 and 4
D) 1,2,and 4
Inspiratory flow Inspiratory time
1)0.33 L/s 1 s
2)0.5 L/s 1.5 s
3)0.75 L/s 1 s
4)0.45 L/s 2 s
A) 3 only
B) 2 and 3
C) 1 and 4
D) 1,2,and 4
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36
Which of the following is a magnetic resonance imaging-compatible transport ventilator?
A) Bio-Med MVP-10
B) Dräger Oxylog 3000
C) Uni-Vent Eagle 754
D) Bio-Med Crossvent
A) Bio-Med MVP-10
B) Dräger Oxylog 3000
C) Uni-Vent Eagle 754
D) Bio-Med Crossvent
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37
What is the tidal volume delivered when the Newport HT50 is set to deliver volume-controlled ventilation with an inspiratory time of 0.75 second and a flow of 0.83 L/s?
A) 375 mL
B) 623 mL
C) 904 mL
D) 1107 mL
A) 375 mL
B) 623 mL
C) 904 mL
D) 1107 mL
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38
The large external battery that is used with the Pulmonetic Systems LTV 1000 ventilator lasts approximately ____ hours when fully charged.
A) 4
B) 6
C) 8
D) 10
A) 4
B) 6
C) 8
D) 10
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39
Which of the following is a transport ventilator that operates normally up to an altitude of 15,000 feet?
A) Airon pNeuton
B) Dräger Oxylog 2000
C) Impact Uni-Vent Eagle 754
D) Pulmonetic Systems LTV 1000
A) Airon pNeuton
B) Dräger Oxylog 2000
C) Impact Uni-Vent Eagle 754
D) Pulmonetic Systems LTV 1000
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40
The alarm sound on the Pulmonetic Systems LTV 1000 ventilator is generated out of which of the following structures in the figure?

A) (1)
B) (2)
C) (3)
D) (4)

A) (1)
B) (2)
C) (3)
D) (4)
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41
Which of the following alarms are included on a Respironics V-60?
1)High peak airway pressure alarm
2)Low inspiratory pressure alarm
3)Low end-expiratory positive airway pressure alarm
4)High tidal volume alarm
5)Low minute ventilation alarm
A) 1 and 3
B) 1,2,and 5
C) 1,2,4,and 5
D) 1,2,3,4,and 5
1)High peak airway pressure alarm
2)Low inspiratory pressure alarm
3)Low end-expiratory positive airway pressure alarm
4)High tidal volume alarm
5)Low minute ventilation alarm
A) 1 and 3
B) 1,2,and 5
C) 1,2,4,and 5
D) 1,2,3,4,and 5
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42
Which of the following statements concerning the Puritan Bennett GoodKnight 425 is true?
A) This unit has a leak alarm and a power disconnect alarm.
B) This unit can be used for noninvasive and invasive ventilation.
C) If apneic events are a significant issue, the patient should not use this unit.
D) Oxygen is supplied by a high-pressure hose attached to the back of the unit.
A) This unit has a leak alarm and a power disconnect alarm.
B) This unit can be used for noninvasive and invasive ventilation.
C) If apneic events are a significant issue, the patient should not use this unit.
D) Oxygen is supplied by a high-pressure hose attached to the back of the unit.
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43
The Crossvent requires a compressed gas source of _________ to ensure adequate gas flow to the patient.
A) 25 to 40 psi
B) 30 to 50 psi
C) 31 to 75 psi
D) 40 to 90 psi
A) 25 to 40 psi
B) 30 to 50 psi
C) 31 to 75 psi
D) 40 to 90 psi
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44
How long does the Oxylog 3000 plus provide 100% oxygen for suctioning?
A) 60 seconds
B) 120 seconds
C) 180 seconds
D) 240 seconds
A) 60 seconds
B) 120 seconds
C) 180 seconds
D) 240 seconds
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45
What is the maximum length of an inspiratory hold on the Oxylog 3000 plus?
A) 10 seconds
B) 12 seconds
C) 15 seconds
D) 18 seconds
A) 10 seconds
B) 12 seconds
C) 15 seconds
D) 18 seconds
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46
When using a Newport HT-50 ventilator,what is the maximum of the sum of the pressure support and positive end-expiratory pressure level?
A) 50 cm H₂O
B) 55 cm H₂O
C) 60 cm H₂O
D) 65 cm H₂O
A) 50 cm H₂O
B) 55 cm H₂O
C) 60 cm H₂O
D) 65 cm H₂O
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47
What is the trigger variable for the Respironics BiPAP Focus?
A) Time
B) Flow
C) Volume
D) Pressure
A) Time
B) Flow
C) Volume
D) Pressure
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48
The low-priority alarms on the BiPAP Synchrony include which of the following?
A) Low battery
B) Patient disconnect
C) Battery voltage too high
D) Momentary loss of power
A) Low battery
B) Patient disconnect
C) Battery voltage too high
D) Momentary loss of power
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49
The Respironics BiPAP Synchrony is limited to a patient weighing ____ kg or more.
A) 15
B) 20
C) 25
D) 30
A) 15
B) 20
C) 25
D) 30
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50
Which of the following interfaces is (are)used in the application of noninvasive positive pressure ventilation?
1)Nasal mask
2)Nasal pillow
3)Oronasal mask
4)Total face mask
A) 1 only
B) 1 and 3
C) 1,2,and 4
D) 1,2,3,and 4
1)Nasal mask
2)Nasal pillow
3)Oronasal mask
4)Total face mask
A) 1 only
B) 1 and 3
C) 1,2,and 4
D) 1,2,3,and 4
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51
Which of the following modes of ventilation on the Respironics V-60 delivers a pressure that relates to the patient's inspiratory effort?
A) Proportional pressure ventilation
B) Average volume-assured pressure support
C) Pressure-controlled ventilation
D) Continuous positive airway pressure
A) Proportional pressure ventilation
B) Average volume-assured pressure support
C) Pressure-controlled ventilation
D) Continuous positive airway pressure
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52
The default value for "Ramp Start" on the Respironics BiPAP Focus is _____ cm H₂O.
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8
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