Deck 24: Antiviral, Antifungal, and Anti-Protozoal Agents
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Deck 24: Antiviral, Antifungal, and Anti-Protozoal Agents
1
The genetic information of viruses includes which of the following?
A) DNA
B) RNA
C) either DNA or RNA
D) none of the above
A) DNA
B) RNA
C) either DNA or RNA
D) none of the above
either DNA or RNA
2
Which of the following is an example of emerging viruses that threaten the public health and may kill thousands of people each year?
A) dengue virus
B) herpes simplex virus
C) hepatitis A virus
D) varicella-zoster virus
A) dengue virus
B) herpes simplex virus
C) hepatitis A virus
D) varicella-zoster virus
dengue virus
3
Acyclovir is most effective against which of the following viruses?
A) cytomegalovirus
B) varicella-zoster virus
C) herpes simplex virus
D) influenza A virus
A) cytomegalovirus
B) varicella-zoster virus
C) herpes simplex virus
D) influenza A virus
herpes simplex virus
4
Famciclovir is used for the management of which of the following viral disorders?
A) herpes zoster (shingles)
B) genital herpes
C) influenza
D) A and B
A) herpes zoster (shingles)
B) genital herpes
C) influenza
D) A and B
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5
Amantadine is used for which of the following disorders?
A) influenza A
B) influenza B
C) shingles
D) genital herpes
A) influenza A
B) influenza B
C) shingles
D) genital herpes
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6
Which of the following agents is a nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor that prevents replication of HIV-1 virus?
A) zidovudine
B) amantadine
C) delavirdine
D) acyclovir
A) zidovudine
B) amantadine
C) delavirdine
D) acyclovir
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7
Lamivudine is in which of the following classes of drugs used to treat HIV infection in patients with AIDS?
A) nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs)
B) non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs)
C) protease Inhibitors (PIs)
D) miscellaneous drugs
A) nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs)
B) non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs)
C) protease Inhibitors (PIs)
D) miscellaneous drugs
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8
Ritonavir is an example of the:
A) NRTIs
B) NNRTIs
C) PIs
D) none of the above
A) NRTIs
B) NNRTIs
C) PIs
D) none of the above
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9
The fungi are a distinct group of organisms that are:
A) plants
B) animals
C) either plants or animals
D) neither plants nor animals
A) plants
B) animals
C) either plants or animals
D) neither plants nor animals
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10
Amphotericin B acts by binding to fungal:
A) cell membranes
B) nuclei
C) nucleotides
D) none of the above
A) cell membranes
B) nuclei
C) nucleotides
D) none of the above
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11
Which of the following is the most serious adverse effect of amphotericin B?
A) hepatotoxicity
B) nephrotoxicity
C) hypotension
D) hypertension
A) hepatotoxicity
B) nephrotoxicity
C) hypotension
D) hypertension
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12
Griseofulvin is available for which of the following routes of administration?
A) only the oral form
B) only the parenteral form
C) only the topical form
D) all of the above
A) only the oral form
B) only the parenteral form
C) only the topical form
D) all of the above
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13
Vaginal tablets of nystatin are contraindicated in which of the following conditions or disorders?
A) pregnancy
B) vaginal infections caused by candida albicans
C) vaginal infections caused by Trichomonas species
D) A and C
A) pregnancy
B) vaginal infections caused by candida albicans
C) vaginal infections caused by Trichomonas species
D) A and C
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14
Ketoconazole is used for severe systemic fungal infections including:
A) candidiasis (oral thrush)
B) chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis
C) pulmonary candidiasis
D) all of the above
A) candidiasis (oral thrush)
B) chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis
C) pulmonary candidiasis
D) all of the above
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15
Griseofulvin is effective in which of the following fungal infections?
A) yeast infections
B) candida infections
C) diaper rash
D) mycotic skin infections
A) yeast infections
B) candida infections
C) diaper rash
D) mycotic skin infections
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16
Which of the following is classified as an anti-protozoal?
A) rifampin
B) metronidazole
C) amantadine
D) nizatidine
A) rifampin
B) metronidazole
C) amantadine
D) nizatidine
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17
Itraconazole is an antifungal indicated in the treatment of which of the following infections?
A) blastomycosis
B) histoplasmosis
C) aspergillosis
D) all of the above
A) blastomycosis
B) histoplasmosis
C) aspergillosis
D) all of the above
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18
Which of the following agents is an antimalarial?
A) metronidazole
B) primaquine
C) sulfamethoxazole
D) saquinavir
A) metronidazole
B) primaquine
C) sulfamethoxazole
D) saquinavir
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19
Chloroquine is the drug of choice to treat acute malaria attacks resulting from which of the following plasmodium?
A) P. falciparum
B) P. vivax
C) P. ovale
D) all of the above
A) P. falciparum
B) P. vivax
C) P. ovale
D) all of the above
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20
Griseofulvin is classified as:
A) an antifungal
B) an antibiotic
C) an anti-infective
D) all of the above
A) an antifungal
B) an antibiotic
C) an anti-infective
D) all of the above
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21
The process of the copying of genetic material is referred to as ____________________.
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22
Some animal viruses are responsible for diseases such as hemorrhagic fever caused by ____________________ virus.
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23
"Immunocompromised" means impairment of the ____________________.
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24
Amantadine is an antiviral and anticholinergic agent effective against influenza A and ____________________ disease.
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25
Ganciclovir should not be administered during pregnancy because of its ____________________ potential.
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26
Missing a single dose of HAART medication even twice a week can cause the development of drug-resistant ____________________.
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27
Lamuvidine is used for HIV infection in combination with ____________________.
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28
Fungi infections include athlete's foot, histoplasmosis, cryptococcosis, tinea, and ____________________ infections.
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29
Amphotericin B for parenteral use should only be mixed in ____________________.
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30
Chloroquine is the drug of choice to suppress ____________________ symptoms.
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31
An outbreak of infectious disease is called an __________.
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32
An inactive or partially active drug that is metabolically changed in the body to an active drug, is called a __________ - __________.
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33
Acyclovir is used against __________ viruses.
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34
Famciclovir is used for the management of acute herpes __________.
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35
Highly Active Anti-Retroviral Therapy (HAART) has been shown to reduce viral load and increase CD4 __________ in persons infected with HIV.
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36
Ritonavir is an anti-HIV drug that is a __________ inhibitor.
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37
Griseofulvin is effective in __________ infections of the nails, hair, and skin.
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38
Antiprotozoal drugs fall into two main categories. One is __________ and another is trichomonacides.
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39
Metronidazole is the drug of choice in amebic dysentery, giardiasis, and __________.
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40
Chloroquine, primaquine, and quinine are used to treat __________.
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41
Match the generic name with the trade name.
-didanosine
A) Zovirax
B) Symmetrel
C) Famvir
D) Cytovene
E) Vistide
F) Rebetol
G) Flumadine
H) Viramune
I) Crixivan
J) Videx
-didanosine
A) Zovirax
B) Symmetrel
C) Famvir
D) Cytovene
E) Vistide
F) Rebetol
G) Flumadine
H) Viramune
I) Crixivan
J) Videx
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42
Match the generic name with the trade name.
-ribavirin
A) Zovirax
B) Symmetrel
C) Famvir
D) Cytovene
E) Vistide
F) Rebetol
G) Flumadine
H) Viramune
I) Crixivan
J) Videx
-ribavirin
A) Zovirax
B) Symmetrel
C) Famvir
D) Cytovene
E) Vistide
F) Rebetol
G) Flumadine
H) Viramune
I) Crixivan
J) Videx
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43
Match the generic name with the trade name.
-indinavir
A) Zovirax
B) Symmetrel
C) Famvir
D) Cytovene
E) Vistide
F) Rebetol
G) Flumadine
H) Viramune
I) Crixivan
J) Videx
-indinavir
A) Zovirax
B) Symmetrel
C) Famvir
D) Cytovene
E) Vistide
F) Rebetol
G) Flumadine
H) Viramune
I) Crixivan
J) Videx
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44
Match the generic name with the trade name.
-nevirapine
A) Zovirax
B) Symmetrel
C) Famvir
D) Cytovene
E) Vistide
F) Rebetol
G) Flumadine
H) Viramune
I) Crixivan
J) Videx
-nevirapine
A) Zovirax
B) Symmetrel
C) Famvir
D) Cytovene
E) Vistide
F) Rebetol
G) Flumadine
H) Viramune
I) Crixivan
J) Videx
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45
Match the generic name with the trade name.
-rimantadine
A) Zovirax
B) Symmetrel
C) Famvir
D) Cytovene
E) Vistide
F) Rebetol
G) Flumadine
H) Viramune
I) Crixivan
J) Videx
-rimantadine
A) Zovirax
B) Symmetrel
C) Famvir
D) Cytovene
E) Vistide
F) Rebetol
G) Flumadine
H) Viramune
I) Crixivan
J) Videx
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46
Match the generic name with the trade name.
-acyclovir
A) Zovirax
B) Symmetrel
C) Famvir
D) Cytovene
E) Vistide
F) Rebetol
G) Flumadine
H) Viramune
I) Crixivan
J) Videx
-acyclovir
A) Zovirax
B) Symmetrel
C) Famvir
D) Cytovene
E) Vistide
F) Rebetol
G) Flumadine
H) Viramune
I) Crixivan
J) Videx
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47
Match the generic name with the trade name.
-cidofovir
A) Zovirax
B) Symmetrel
C) Famvir
D) Cytovene
E) Vistide
F) Rebetol
G) Flumadine
H) Viramune
I) Crixivan
J) Videx
-cidofovir
A) Zovirax
B) Symmetrel
C) Famvir
D) Cytovene
E) Vistide
F) Rebetol
G) Flumadine
H) Viramune
I) Crixivan
J) Videx
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48
Match the generic name with the trade name.
-ganciclovir
A) Zovirax
B) Symmetrel
C) Famvir
D) Cytovene
E) Vistide
F) Rebetol
G) Flumadine
H) Viramune
I) Crixivan
J) Videx
-ganciclovir
A) Zovirax
B) Symmetrel
C) Famvir
D) Cytovene
E) Vistide
F) Rebetol
G) Flumadine
H) Viramune
I) Crixivan
J) Videx
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49
Match the generic name with the trade name.
-famciclovir
A) Zovirax
B) Symmetrel
C) Famvir
D) Cytovene
E) Vistide
F) Rebetol
G) Flumadine
H) Viramune
I) Crixivan
J) Videx
-famciclovir
A) Zovirax
B) Symmetrel
C) Famvir
D) Cytovene
E) Vistide
F) Rebetol
G) Flumadine
H) Viramune
I) Crixivan
J) Videx
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50
Match the generic name with the trade name.
-amantadine
A) Zovirax
B) Symmetrel
C) Famvir
D) Cytovene
E) Vistide
F) Rebetol
G) Flumadine
H) Viramune
I) Crixivan
J) Videx
-amantadine
A) Zovirax
B) Symmetrel
C) Famvir
D) Cytovene
E) Vistide
F) Rebetol
G) Flumadine
H) Viramune
I) Crixivan
J) Videx
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51
Match the generic name with the trade name.
-atovaquone
A) Flagyl
B) Nebupent
C) Aralen
D) Lariam
E) Plaquenil
F) Mepron
-atovaquone
A) Flagyl
B) Nebupent
C) Aralen
D) Lariam
E) Plaquenil
F) Mepron
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52
Match the generic name with the trade name.
-mefloquine
A) Flagyl
B) Nebupent
C) Aralen
D) Lariam
E) Plaquenil
F) Mepron
-mefloquine
A) Flagyl
B) Nebupent
C) Aralen
D) Lariam
E) Plaquenil
F) Mepron
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53
Match the generic name with the trade name.
-hydroxychloroquine
A) Flagyl
B) Nebupent
C) Aralen
D) Lariam
E) Plaquenil
F) Mepron
-hydroxychloroquine
A) Flagyl
B) Nebupent
C) Aralen
D) Lariam
E) Plaquenil
F) Mepron
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54
Match the generic name with the trade name.
-metronidazole
A) Flagyl
B) Nebupent
C) Aralen
D) Lariam
E) Plaquenil
F) Mepron
-metronidazole
A) Flagyl
B) Nebupent
C) Aralen
D) Lariam
E) Plaquenil
F) Mepron
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55
Match the generic name with the trade name.
-chloroquine
A) Flagyl
B) Nebupent
C) Aralen
D) Lariam
E) Plaquenil
F) Mepron
-chloroquine
A) Flagyl
B) Nebupent
C) Aralen
D) Lariam
E) Plaquenil
F) Mepron
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56
Match the generic name with the trade name.
-pentamidine
A) Flagyl
B) Nebupent
C) Aralen
D) Lariam
E) Plaquenil
F) Mepron
-pentamidine
A) Flagyl
B) Nebupent
C) Aralen
D) Lariam
E) Plaquenil
F) Mepron
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