Deck 18: Multivairate Data Analysis: Discriminant Analysis, Factor Analysis, Cluster Analysis, and Multidimensional Scaling

Question 1

The graphical approach to analyzing data to determine what causes differences between groups has the following problem(s):

A) It is difficult to anticipate all the graphs that might be useful.
B) Two dimensional graphs are limited in the information they convey.
C) When multiple variables are considered simultaneously, higher dimension graphs (greater than two dimensions) become difficult to interpret.
D) Only a and b are involved.
E) All of the above are involved.

Answer 1

All of the above are involved.

Question 2

(Use the following information to answer the next two questions.)
A study was done in an attempt to discriminate between the listeners of three popular AM radio stations during the morning "drive-time" period. The following demographic variables were used in the analysis: age, income, education, marital status, number of children at home, and gender. Use the information to answer the following two questions?

-How many discriminant functions will be generated in this analysis?

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) None of the above.

Answer 2

2

Question 3

(Use the following information to answer the next two questions.)
A study was done in an attempt to discriminate between the listeners of three popular AM radio stations during the morning "drive-time" period. The following demographic variables were used in the analysis: age, income, education, marital status, number of children at home, and gender. Use the information to answer the following two questions?

-If a research analyst decided to analyze the information using the graphical approach, how many different two-way graphs are possible?

A) 12
B) 15
C) 120
D) 16
E) None of the above.

Answer 3

12

Question 4

Which of the following quantities are used to assess the relative importance of variables in discriminating between groups?

A) the mean differences of the groups on each variable
B) the standardized discriminant coefficients
C) the discriminant loadings
D) b and c only
E) all of the above

Question 5

The amount of variance the discriminant score shares with any one variable can be ascertained by

A) squaring the value of the discriminant loading.
B) examining the standardized discriminant coefficient.
C) taking the square root of the discriminant loading.
D) squaring the mean discriminant score.
E) multiplying the discriminant loading by the mean value of the variable.

Question 6

Which of the following statements pertaining to discriminant analysis is FALSE?

A) The "hit rate" in a confusion matrix indicates the proportion of sample units correctly classified by the classification decision rule.
B) When attempting to assess the contribution of each variable to the discriminant function one should use the raw score weights.
C) The cutting score is the score that divides the mean discriminant scores.
D) A confusion matrix is a two way table that contrasts actual group membership with predicted group membership.
E) The mean discriminant score can be calculated by substituting the mean of each variable in the derived discriminant function.

Question 7

Which of the following statements concerning discriminant analysis is FALSE?

A) Discriminant analysis is useful in marketing for examining differences between groups.
B) In discriminant analysis the dependent variable is a dichotomy or multichotomy, whereas in regression it is typically interval scaled.
C) A two-group discriminant analysis can be transformed into a regression problem simply by using a 0/1 dummy code for the dependent variable.
D) The degree of correlation among predictors is of concern in both discriminant and regression analysis.
E) The criterion that is satisfied in solving for the discriminant function is the maximization of the ratio of within-group variation to between-group variation.

Question 8

Which of the following is NOT one of the quantities used to assess the relative importance of variables in discriminating between groups in discriminant analysis?

A) the mean differences of the groups on each variable
B) the discriminant coefficients
C) the pairwise correlations between the variable and the discriminant score
D) the standardized coefficients
E) Both b and c are not quantities used to assess the relative importance of variables in discriminating between groups.

Question 9

In which of the following marketing research situations is discriminant analysis probably NOT appropriate?

A) the investigation of differences between light and heavy users of a product
B) the investigation of naturally occurring market segments existing in a market
C) the determination of the basic dimensions that underlie customer brand loyalty
D) the investigation of brand-loyal vs. non-brand-loyal customers
E) discriminant analysis is the most appropriate method of data analysis in each of these situations

Question 10

If there are 25 individuals in group 1 and 16 individuals in group 2, the proportional chance criterion is approximately

A) .36.
B) .48.
C) .52.
D) .58.
E) 1.40.

Question 11

Once the discriminant function has been produced, the researcher's next step is to:

A) begin interpretation of the function by examining the discriminant coefficients
B) check the statistical significance of the function
C) standardize the discriminant coefficients
D) classify individuals using the discriminant function
E) none of the above

Question 12

(Use the information below to answer the next three questions.)
In a five variable two group discriminant analysis, the following weights were derived: V₁ = .561, V₂ = .030, V₃ = .049, V₄ = .701, V₅ = -.021. The corresponding pooled standard deviations are S₁ = 4.60, S₂ = 1.23, S₃ = 10.40, S₄ = 13.23, and S₅ = 8.30. For individual 1, the values for the four variables were X₁ = 10, X₂ = 3, X₃ = 25, X₄ = 36, and X₅ = 42.

-Individual 1's discriminant raw score is

A) 26.98.
B) 27.65.
C) 3l.30.
D) 32.16.
E) 33.04.

Question 13

(Use the information below to answer the next three questions.)
In a five variable two group discriminant analysis, the following weights were derived: V₁ = .561, V₂ = .030, V₃ = .049, V₄ = .701, V₅ = -.021. The corresponding pooled standard deviations are S₁ = 4.60, S₂ = 1.23, S₃ = 10.40, S₄ = 13.23, and S₅ = 8.30. For individual 1, the values for the four variables were X₁ = 10, X₂ = 3, X₃ = 25, X₄ = 36, and X₅ = 42.

-Individual 1's standardized discriminant score is

A) 363.08.
B) 365.21.
C) 372.53.
D) 380.47.
E) 392.03.

Question 14

(Use the information below to answer the next three questions.)
In a five variable two group discriminant analysis, the following weights were derived: V₁ = .561, V₂ = .030, V₃ = .049, V₄ = .701, V₅ = -.021. The corresponding pooled standard deviations are S₁ = 4.60, S₂ = 1.23, S₃ = 10.40, S₄ = 13.23, and S₅ = 8.30. For individual 1, the values for the four variables were X₁ = 10, X₂ = 3, X₃ = 25, X₄ = 36, and X₅ = 42.

-Which variable is least important in discriminating between the two groups?

A) X₁
B) X₂
C) X₃
D) X₄
E) X₅

Question 15

A discriminant analysis has been performed for two groups of marketing managers. The mean discriminant score for group one is 28.4 while the mean discriminant score for group two is 20.8. There are 20 managers in group one and 24 managers in group two. What is the cutting score useful for classifying individuals into the two groups?

A) 24.9
B) 24.6
C) 24.3
D) 28.4
E) more information is needed

Question 16

In a five group discriminant problem, where the groups are equal in size, the mean discriminant score for each group is $\overline{Y}$ ₁ = 13.01, $\overline{Y}$ ₂ = 24.65, $\overline{Y}$ ₃ = 3.02, $\overline{Y}$ ₄ = 8.03, and $\overline{Y}$ ₅ = 42.06.

-How many different "cutting scores" must be calculated?

A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
E) five

Question 17

In a five group discriminant problem, where the groups are equal in size, the mean discriminant score for each group is $\overline{Y}$ ₁ = 13.01, $\overline{Y}$ ₂ = 24.65, $\overline{Y}$ ₃ = 3.02, $\overline{Y}$ ₄ = 8.03, and $\overline{Y}$ ₅ = 42.06.

-What is the cutting score between Y₁ and Y₂?

A) 18.83
B) 16.75
C) 19.02
D) 18.90
E) none of the above

Question 18

To determine the "hit rate" in a matrix of actual vs. predicted classifications, the analyst should focus most of his/her attention on the

A) individual column totals.
B) individual row totals.
C) both the individual column and row totals.
D) total number of subjects in the diagonal of the matrix.
E) average of the column totals.

Question 19

-The hit rate is approximately

A) .60.
B) .62.
C) .64.
D) .66.
E) .70.

Question 20

-The proportional chance criterion is

A) .28.
B) .30.
C) .32.
D) .34.
E) .36.

Question 21

Which of the following are true of the maximum chance criterion and the proportional chance criterion?

A) They are equal in value when the diagonal entries are the same.
B) They are equal in value when group sample sizes are equal.
C) The maximum chance criterion is always greater than the proportional chance criterion.
D) The proportional chance criterion is always greater than the maximum chance criterion.
E) None of the above are true.

Question 22

The cutting score in a discriminant analysis is the score that

A) divides the mean discriminant scores.
B) determines which discriminant functions are statistically significant.
C) determines which discriminant coefficients are statistically significant.
D) is used as a guide to classify subjects.
E) is a and d above.

Question 23

The "hit rate" in a confusion matrix

A) indicates the proportion of sample units correctly classified.
B) is estimated by dividing the sum of the diagonal entries by the total number of individuals in all groups.
C) can only be estimated when there are three or fewer groups.
D) is all of the above.
E) is a and b above.

Question 24

The mean discriminant score can be calculated by

A) substituting the mean of each variable in the desired discriminant function.
B) substituting the mean of each variable multiplied by the pooled variance.
C) taking the square root of the cutting score.
D) squaring the cutting score.
E) a and c above.

Question 25

The major purpose(s) of factor analysis is

A) to indicate on which observed variables entities differ most.
B) to identify the dimensions that underlie constructs.
C) to summarize the important information in a set of variables by a new smaller set of variables.
D) all of the above.
E) b and c above.

Question 26

Principal components factor analysis seeks to

A) transform a set of interrelated variables into a set of unrelated linear combinations of these variables.
B) choose the set of linear combinations so that each factor accounts for an increasing proportion of the variance in the original variables.
C) choose the set of linear combinations so that the factors are uncorrelated with each other.
D) a and b.
E) a and c.

Question 27

The square of a factor loading indicates

A) the proportion of variation accounted for by the factor.
B) the proportion of variation in the variable accounted for by the complete set of possible factors.
C) the proportion of variation shared by one pair of variables.
D) the proportion of variation in the variable shared by all variables in the analysis.
E) none of the above.

Question 28

In factor analysis, the factor loadings represent which of the following?

A) the proportions of variance in the variable accounted for by the factor
B) the correlations between the factors and the variables
C) the importance of the variables in the analysis
D) the achieved communality
E) the correlations between any two variables used in the analysis

Question 29

When making a decision as to how many factors to retain in the final factor analysis solution, the researcher should

A) examine the size of the latent roots.
B) plot the size of the latent roots against the number of factors.
C) examine the amount of covariability recovery.
D) examine the amount of variability recovery.
E) all of the above.

Question 30

Varimax rotation of a factor solution attempts to

A) maintain the right angles between the factors.
B) enhance the substantive interpretation of the unrotated factor solution.
C) force the entries in the columns of the factor loading matrix to be near 0 or 1.
D) all of the above.
E) a and b above.

Question 31

A factor loading is typically assumed to be significant if its value is in the neighborhood of

A) .20 to .25.
B) .25 to .30.
C) .30 to .35.
D) .35 to .40.
E) .40 to .45.

Question 32

Rotation of the original factor analysis solution typically results in

A) an improved substantive interpretation of the solution.
B) a change in the achieved communality estimate for any one variable.
C) a change in the proportion of variance accounted for by any one factor.
D) a and b above.
E) a and c above.

Question 33

To secure communality estimates for the classical factor model

A) the communalities from an initial principal components model can be used.
B) the smallest absolute value of the correlation of the variable with any other variable can be used.
C) the highest achieved communality from a principal components model can be used.
D) a separate communality estimate is unnecessary because the classical factor model simply uses 1's in the diagonal.
E) a and c.

Question 34

-What proportion of the variability in the data is accounted for by the first factor?

A) .04
B) .38
C) .13
D) 1.53
E) .51

Question 35

-The communality of the "inactivity" variable is

A) 1.53.
B) .04.
C) .53.
D) .51.
E) .90.

Question 36

-The estimated original correlation between aggressiveness and stress is

A) .19.
B) .18.
C) .88.
D) .05.
E) .44.

Question 37

-What proportion of the variability in the data is accounted for by the two factor solution?

A) 51%
B) 100%
C) 78%
D) 27%
E) more information is needed

Question 38

-For which pair of variables is the estimated original correlation the highest?

A) inactivity and aggressiveness
B) inactivity and ambition
C) aggressiveness and stress
D) aggressiveness and ambition
E) stress and ambition

Question 39

-Which of the variables would appear to be least related to the others?

A) inactivity
B) aggressiveness
C) ambition
D) stress
E) a and c

Question 40

When there are four variables to be factor analyzed, the maximum number of factors that can be extracted is

A) one.
B) two.
C) three.
D) four.
E) none of the above.

Question 41

The amount of variance in a single variable captured by the set of factors is referred to as the

A) factor loading.
B) achieved communality.
C) variability recovery of a single factor.
D) covariability recovery.
E) latent root.

Question 42

Which of the following does not refer to a method of factor rotation?

A) varimax
B) oblique
C) epsilon
D) orthogonal
E) quartimax

Question 43

If a variable does not have a significant loading on any factor,

A) factor analysis is not appropriate for this set of data.
B) the analyst may decide to eliminate the variable if it is not important to the study's object.
C) the variable should be eliminated if its achieved communality is low.
D) all of the above are correct.
E) b and c above are correct.

Question 44

-Use the scree test to determine the number of factors that should be retained in the factor analysis. How many factors should be retained?

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5

Question 45

-Use the traditional eigenvalue test to determine the number of factors that should be retained in the factor analysis. How many factors should be retained?

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5

Question 46

-As shown above, the total variance can be explained by 8 factors. What is the least number of variables on which this principal components factor analysis can be based?

A) 2
B) 8
C) 16
D) 4
E) more information is needed

Question 47

Factor analysis may be inappropriate if

A) the pattern of correlations is high throughout the correlation matrix.
B) the slot of the latent roots indicates no sharp break.
C) covariability recovery is high.
D) no dependent variable is present in the data.
E) there are more than 10 variables to be analyzed.

Question 48

Factor analysis has been used in marketing to

A) purify original sets of scale items.
B) develop customer profiles.
C) determine key preference attributes.
D) assess a company's image.
E) all of the above.

Question 49

Which of the following is NOT a key decision that needs to be made when factor analyzing data?

A) What is the dependent variable?
B) Should factor analysis be applied to the data?
C) Which factor model should be used?
D) Should the initial solution be rotated?
E) All of the above are key decisions that need to be made when factor analyzing data.

Question 50

Which of the following is NOT one of the key decisions to be made when cluster analyzing data?

A) selecting and coding the attributes necessary to generate natural groupings
B) selecting an appropriate method of measuring the similarity or resemblance of the objects
C) select a method of testing the significance of the solution and naming the resulting clusters
D) both a and c are not key decision in cluster analysis
E) all of the above are key decisions in cluster analysis

Question 51

-With the single linkage method of clustering objects, the criterion value at which A would be allowed to join cluster BCD is

A) .617.
B) .484.
C) .372.
D) .491.
E) .428.

Question 52

-With the average linkage method of clustering objects, the criterion value at which A would be allowed to join cluster BCD is:

A) .617.
B) .484.
C) .372.
D) .491.
E) .428.

Question 53

-With the complete linkage method of clustering objects, the criterion value at which A would be allowed to join cluster BCD is

A) .617.
B) .484.
C) .372.
D) .491.
E) .428.

Question 54

To better determine the appropriate number of clusters, the analyst should

A) plot the number of clusters against the fusion coefficient.
B) examine the standardized cluster scores.
C) determine the amount of variance explained by each cluster.
D) plot the number of clusters against the number of objects.
E) examine the cluster loadings.

Question 55

Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding cluster analysis?

A) Different methods of cluster analysis can produce different results.
B) There is consensus on which method of cluster analysis is best under all circumstances.
C) Nodal methods of factor analysis involve the selection of an object or objects to serve as focal points for the clusters.
D) The average linkage method works better than the other hierarchical method of cluster analysis.
E) Cluster analysis seeks to identify natural groupings of objects given the multivariate nature of the data.

Question 56

To test whether the cluster results offer a reasonable summary of the similarity, correlation, or distance matrix, that is, are the individual clusters sufficiently homogeneous and is the system as a whole consistent with the input similarities, the following procedure(s) can be performed:

A) the variables used to determine the clusters can be tested to determine if the clusters have statistically different values across the groups.
B) the reliability of the estimates can be assessed by splitting the data into multiple subsets and assessing whether the same clusters are produced when the subsets are analyzed.
C) significance tests can be performed that compare the clusters on variables not used to generate the solution.
D) All of the above procedures are correct.
E) Both b and c are correct.

Question 57

Which statement regarding cluster analysis is FALSE?

A) Linkage methods are hierarchical clustering techniques.
B) The dendrogram is used to capture the hierarchical clustering of objects.
C) A prime node is the most atypical object around which all remaining objects are clustered.
D) All clustering procedures are based on some measure of similarity between objects.
E) Standardization of the variables is recommended in most instances.

Question 58

A researcher is using cluster analysis in the process of selecting cities to use for test markets for a new product. He has identified two cities that he feels represent the two procedures. A total of ten cities will be used. Which method of cluster analysis should the researcher use?

A) single linkage method
B) nodal method
C) factor analysis method
D) complete linkage method
E) either a or d should be used

Question 59

Which procedure(s) can be classified as an appropriate iterative clustering method(s) to initially partition the set of objects?

A) polar nodal method
B) prime nodal method
C) picking specific objects to serve as group centroids
D) randomly assigning objects to one of a prespecified number of clusters
E) all of the above

Question 60

Which is not an appropriate application of cluster analysis?

A) grouping customers according to product benefits
B) determining the underlying dimensions of customer satisfaction
C) sorting household demand patterns into similar shapes
D) determining spheres of opinion leadership
E) assessing the similarity of world markets

Question 61

Gower's coefficient of similarity is capable of handling data that is

A) dichotomous.
B) multichotomous.
C) interval scaled.
D) ratio scaled.
E) all of the above.

Question 62

To determine the number of relevant clusters to retain when examining the plot of the number of clusters versus the fusion coefficient, the analyst should look for

A) significant savings in the fusion coefficient.
B) points where the curve approaches the y axis.
C) points where the curve flattens out.
D) points where the line begins to approach the x axis.
E) both a and c.

Question 63

The following questions focus on Multidimensional Scaling:

-The basic objective in multidimensional scaling is to

A) plot m stimuli in m-1 space.
B) plot m stimuli in two-dimensional space.
C) determine an arbitrary configuration of points in space which have a nice geometrical shape.
D) determine how a multidimensional configuration can be captured by a numerical score.
E) characterize people's perceptions of the similarity of objects and their preferences among objects in a multidimensional space.

Question 64

The following questions focus on Multidimensional Scaling:

-The computer output of nonmetric multidimensional scaling analysis provides which of the following?

A) the number of dimensions underlying the respondent's judgments.
B) a map of the configuration characterizing the respondent's judgments.
C) attributes the individual is using when making judgments.
D) a and b above.
E) all of the above.

Question 65

The following questions focus on Multidimensional Scaling:

-Which of the following is FALSE?

A) Perceptual maps can be created using attribute-based or nonattribute-based approaches.
B) Multidimensional scaling analysis is typically used to refer to the attribute-based approaches to creating perceptual maps.
C) The attribute-based approaches for developing perceptual maps rely on characteristic-by-characteristic assessments of the various objects using, for example, Likert-type scales.
D) a and b.
E) a, b, and c.

Question 66

The following questions focus on Multidimensional Scaling:

-Which of the following is TRUE?

A) The attribute-based approaches for developing perceptual maps require subjects to make overall judgments about the similarity of various objects using whatever attributes they wish.
B) The emphasis in multidimensional scaling analysis is to determine the maximum dimensionality needed to capture adequately a person's perceptual or preference judgments.
C) The idea of distance or more formally psychological nearness or proximity is one of the key ideas in multidimensional scaling.
D) One of the key outputs of a multidimensional scaling analysis is the computer's identification of the attributes underlying an individual's similarity judgments.
E) They are all false.

Question 67

The following questions focus on Multidimensional Scaling:

-Multidimensional scaling is concerned with

A) the mapping of perceptions and preferences.
B) the spatial relationship of objective data.
C) the mapping and transformation of distances.
D) the evaluation of the positive and negative aspects of an object.
E) the mapping of a unidimensional concept in space.

Question 68

The following questions focus on Multidimensional Scaling:

-In multidimensional scaling, one of the major problems is naming the dimensions. The methods for doing this include

A) computing the correlations between physical characteristics and the scores of the various dimensions of the configuration.
B) naming them on the basis of the researcher's insight and experience.
C) locating the ideal points.
D) increasing the number of dimensions.
E) a and b.

Question 69

The following questions focus on Multidimensional Scaling:

-Which of the following about perceptual maps is TRUE?

A) Perceptual maps can only be generated when respondents provide direct judgments about the similarity of various objects, e.g., A is more similar to C than it is to B.
B) One encouraging empirical finding regarding the development of perceptual maps is that the dimensions do not seem to depend upon the objects included in the stimulus set used to secure the judgments.
C) The greater the number of dimensions used with a perceptual map in multidimensional scaling, the better the fit of objects within the perceptual map.
D) a and c.
E) b and c.

Question 70

The following questions focus on Multidimensional Scaling:

-Which of the following about multidimensional scaling is TRUE?

A) In multidimensional scaling, it is easier to work with larger numbers of dimensions in a perceptual map for purposes of interpretation.
B) By varying the number of dimensions used with a multidimensional scaling analysis, it is always possible to obtain a perfect fit of all objects in a perceptual map.
C) It is not possible to obtain perfect fit of all objects in a multidimensional scaling analysis with just two dimensions.
D) a and b.
E) a, b, and c.

Question 71

The following questions focus on Multidimensional Scaling:

-Non-metric methods of multidimensional scaling generate

A) metric output from metric input.
B) rank order output from ordinal input.
C) nominal output from ordinal input.
D) metric output from nominal input.
E) metric output from ordinal input.

Question 72

The following questions focus on Multidimensional Scaling:

-Which of the following is FALSE?

A) An advantage of the nonattribute-based approaches over the attribute-based approaches in the development of perceptual maps is that they make naming the dimensions easier.
B) The attribute-based approaches to the development of perceptual maps require a relatively more accurate and complete set of attributes to be specified in advance of data collection.
C) Computer programs for the attribute-based approaches to the development of perceptual maps are more readily available and less expensive to run than are the programs for the nonattribute-based approaches.
D) The attribute rating approaches to multidimensional scaling analysis make it easier in comparison to direct methods to cluster respondents into groups with similar perceptions.
E) The attribute and nonattribute approaches to perceptual mapping can produce very different maps.

Question 73

The following questions focus on Multidimensional Scaling:

-Which of the following questions are typically NOT of concern once a respondent has ranked a group of objects according to similarity?

A) What does the configuration of objects look like when all are considered simultaneously?
B) What attributes is the individual using in making his or her judgments?
C) Which objects were considered earliest in the ranking process by the respondent?
D) How many dimensions underlie this respondent's judgments of similarity?
E) All of the above are typically of concern.

Question 74

The following questions focus on Multidimensional Scaling:

-Which of the following are not methods for naming underlying dimensions in multidimensional scaling?

A) After subjects have evaluated objects in terms of defined attributes, the researcher can correlate the attribute scale scores for each object with the coordinates for each object in the perceptual map.
B) Managers may use their experience to interpret the dimensions.
C) Researchers may attempt to relate the dimensions to actual attributes of the objects under study.
D) Researchers may name the resulting dimensions based on a priori hypotheses.
E) All of the above are methods for naming dimensions in MDS.

Question 75

The following questions focus on Multidimensional Scaling:

-Kruskal's stress

A) is an index of variation.
B) is a measure of central tendency.
C) is a lack of fit index.
D) is an index of reproducibility.
E) is an index of dispersion.

Question 76

The following questions focus on Multidimensional Scaling:

-Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A) Perceptual maps cannot only be produced when direct judgments about the similarity of objects are obtained, but also when the same objects are rated on a predefined set of attributes.
B) Similarity measurement has an advantage over attribute ratings in that it allows respondents to employ only those dimensions they normally use in making judgments among objects.
C) The attribute rating approach to multidimensional scaling analysis facilitates naming the dimensions.
D) Similarity measurement has the advantage over attribute ratings in multi-dimensional scaling analysis in that it better handles the problem of grouping respondents with similar perceptions.
E) Similarity judgments can be gathered both directly and by having respondents rate objects on a predefined set of attributes.

Question 77

The following questions focus on Multidimensional Scaling:

-Which of the following is FALSE?

A) An ideal point is a hypothetical point on a multidimensional scaling perceptual map that possesses the perfect combination of attributes or dimensions.
B) The first decision an analyst must make in a multidimensional scaling analysis regards the choice of objects, products, or brands to be used in the analysis.
C) When selecting products or brands for use in a multidimensional scaling analysis, an important trade-off occurs between the desire to include enough brands so that all important dimensions will be represented and the desire to keep the number of respondents needed for the analysis to a minimum.
D) a and b.
E) a, b, and c.

Question 78

The following questions focus on Multidimensional Scaling:

-Which of the following regarding the attribute-based versus the nonattribute based approaches to the development of perceptual maps is FALSE?

A) The attribute-based approaches rely on characteristic-by-characteristic assessments of the various objects.
B) The nonattribute methods ask respondents to judge directly how similar the various alternatives are using whatever criteria they desire.
C) The attribute?based approaches make naming the dimensions easier.
D) Computer programs for the attribute-brand approaches are more readily available and less expensive to run.
E) Computer programs for the attribute-based approaches are more expensive to run.

Question 79

The following questions focus on Multidimensional Scaling:

-For which of the following applications would multidimensional scaling not be appropriate?

A) determining viable segments that exist in a market
B) finding "holes" in a market that might support a new product venture
C) identifying the combination of attributes buyers most prefer
D) determining salient product attributes perceived by buyers in a market
E) MDS is appropriate for each of these applications

Question 80

The following questions focus on Multidimensional Scaling:

-The dimensions that appear in the perceptual map generated by multidimensional scaling procedures are determined by

A) the research organization conducting the research.
B) the stimulus set.
C) the researcher.
D) the company sponsoring the research project.
E) the statistical program itself.