Deck 9: Emotion
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Deck 9: Emotion
1
Which theorist suggested that emotional states occur innately in children and thus are not learned?
A) Charles Darwin
B) D.O Hebb
C) Mr. Dress-up
D) Friedrich Goltz
E) Gregor Mendel
A) Charles Darwin
B) D.O Hebb
C) Mr. Dress-up
D) Friedrich Goltz
E) Gregor Mendel
Charles Darwin
2
Researcher Ekman suggested that for an emotional state to be considered as basic it must exhibit seven elements. Which one of the following was not considered a basic element?
A) distinctive physiological state
B) distinctive eliciting stimuli
C) almost instantaneous onset of the facial expression and physiological state, which last for only a brief duration
D) automatic reaction regarding what the emotion entails
E) neither c or d
A) distinctive physiological state
B) distinctive eliciting stimuli
C) almost instantaneous onset of the facial expression and physiological state, which last for only a brief duration
D) automatic reaction regarding what the emotion entails
E) neither c or d
automatic reaction regarding what the emotion entails
3
Ohman and Mineka suggest that certain phobias (i.e. snakes) are common cross-culturally because…
A) children develop these fears through similar cultural practices, stories and adult reactions.
B) humans contain evolved mechanisms to produce fear for dangerous stimuli that were important in evolutionary history.
C) all humans are born with an archetype that unconsciously reacts to certain stimuli.
D) none of these are correct.
A) children develop these fears through similar cultural practices, stories and adult reactions.
B) humans contain evolved mechanisms to produce fear for dangerous stimuli that were important in evolutionary history.
C) all humans are born with an archetype that unconsciously reacts to certain stimuli.
D) none of these are correct.
humans contain evolved mechanisms to produce fear for dangerous stimuli that were important in evolutionary history.
4
Which of the following is true regarding the James Lange Theory of emotion?
A) Conscious experiences of emotional states are driven physiological responses.
B) Physiological responses of emotional states are driven by conscious experiences.
C) Conscious experience and physiological responses occur simultaneously in reaction to stimuli, causing an emotional state.
D) It is impossible to differentiate between whether the cognitive or physiological response occurs first in an emotional state.
A) Conscious experiences of emotional states are driven physiological responses.
B) Physiological responses of emotional states are driven by conscious experiences.
C) Conscious experience and physiological responses occur simultaneously in reaction to stimuli, causing an emotional state.
D) It is impossible to differentiate between whether the cognitive or physiological response occurs first in an emotional state.
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5
The Cannon Bard theory suggested that cognitive aspects of affect could be experienced even when individuals could not sense any physiological changes.
They based this conclusion on studies that involved…
A) patients that were given anaesthetics were still able to sense feelings although their autonomic nervous system was numbed.
B) injecting adrenaline into participants, and this did not increase their emotional responses to stimuli.
C) rats that were enveloped in ice water (i.e. they were numb) still showed a normal fear response.
D) reports that humans with spinal chord transections experienced no change in their ability to sense feelings.
They based this conclusion on studies that involved…
A) patients that were given anaesthetics were still able to sense feelings although their autonomic nervous system was numbed.
B) injecting adrenaline into participants, and this did not increase their emotional responses to stimuli.
C) rats that were enveloped in ice water (i.e. they were numb) still showed a normal fear response.
D) reports that humans with spinal chord transections experienced no change in their ability to sense feelings.
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6
In a study by Dutton and Aron (1974), they had a young woman introduce herself to participants either when they were on a high, swinging suspension bridge (high arousal) or when they were on a low, stable bridge (low arousal). Participants later had to rate the attractiveness of the young woman. The results of this study were consistent with the Schacter-Singer theory. Given this information, which of the following statements is true?
A) Participants in the high arousal condition rated the young woman as significantly less attractive than did the individuals who were in the low arousal condition.
B) Participants in the high arousal condition rated the young woman as significantly more attractive than did the individuals who were in the low arousal condition.
C) Only the participants who had a fear of heights in the high arousal condition rated the woman as significantly more attractive.
D) Participants in the high arousal condition rated the young woman as more attractive than did the individuals in the low arousal condition, but the difference was not significant.
A) Participants in the high arousal condition rated the young woman as significantly less attractive than did the individuals who were in the low arousal condition.
B) Participants in the high arousal condition rated the young woman as significantly more attractive than did the individuals who were in the low arousal condition.
C) Only the participants who had a fear of heights in the high arousal condition rated the woman as significantly more attractive.
D) Participants in the high arousal condition rated the young woman as more attractive than did the individuals in the low arousal condition, but the difference was not significant.
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7
What are somatic markers?
A) The brain region in which emotional memories are stored.
B) An innate "emotional regulator" in humans.
C) The means by which out brain evaluates novel situations on the basis of previous experience.
D) The gyri in the temporal lobe that project emotional responses when stimulated.
A) The brain region in which emotional memories are stored.
B) An innate "emotional regulator" in humans.
C) The means by which out brain evaluates novel situations on the basis of previous experience.
D) The gyri in the temporal lobe that project emotional responses when stimulated.
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8
Which of the following is not an attribute of the Magda Arnold's Appraisal Theory?
A) The theory explains the relationship between the physiological cognitive aspects of emotional states.
B) The theory explains how emotions are generated.
C) The theory has an emphasis on the cognitive (i.e. deliberate and conscious) component.
D) The theory provides a framework for understanding why emotional states exist.
A) The theory explains the relationship between the physiological cognitive aspects of emotional states.
B) The theory explains how emotions are generated.
C) The theory has an emphasis on the cognitive (i.e. deliberate and conscious) component.
D) The theory provides a framework for understanding why emotional states exist.
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9
Maxine tells her roommate, Crystal that she "just loves the weather they've been having". Crystal is confused because it has been miserable outside all week. To determine whether or not Maxine is being sarcastic, Crystal must examine the ________of her roommate's speech.
A) semantic enunciation
B) prosody
C) sodomy
D) sarcasm
E) tone
A) semantic enunciation
B) prosody
C) sodomy
D) sarcasm
E) tone
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10
Individuals with damage to the ________exhibit profound difficulties in producing prosodic speech.
A) frontal lobe
B) temporal lobe
C) basal ganglia
D) left hemisphere
E) right hemisphere
A) frontal lobe
B) temporal lobe
C) basal ganglia
D) left hemisphere
E) right hemisphere
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11
Researchers use chimeric faces in order to study…
A) the perception of the emotional tone of visual stimuli.
B) the left visual field's representation of emotional stimuli.
C) the role of the nuclei that regulate the autonomic nervous system.
D) a culture's representation of emotional faces.
E) attractiveness rating within a culture.
A) the perception of the emotional tone of visual stimuli.
B) the left visual field's representation of emotional stimuli.
C) the role of the nuclei that regulate the autonomic nervous system.
D) a culture's representation of emotional faces.
E) attractiveness rating within a culture.
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12
Which of the following structures is most important for feelings of fear and fear responses?
A) hippocampus
B) nucleus accumbens
C) amygdala
D) hypothalamus
E) septum
A) hippocampus
B) nucleus accumbens
C) amygdala
D) hypothalamus
E) septum
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13
People who display deficits in varying their pitch and expression during speech because of damage to their right hemisphere are said to have…
A) audio expression deficit
B) aprosodia
C) prosodonia
D) Broca's aphasia
E) Wernicke's aphasia
A) audio expression deficit
B) aprosodia
C) prosodonia
D) Broca's aphasia
E) Wernicke's aphasia
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14
Which of the following is not a symptom of Kluver-Bucy syndrome?
A) an inability to recognize familiar objects
B) increased sexual activity
C) tendency to place objects in ones mouth
D) increased fear response to stimuli
E) hypermetamorphosis
A) an inability to recognize familiar objects
B) increased sexual activity
C) tendency to place objects in ones mouth
D) increased fear response to stimuli
E) hypermetamorphosis
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15
Theories regarding the biological basis of depression typically focus on the neurotransmitter________and on_________factors.
A) serotonin; genetic
B) dopamine; genetic
C) epinephrine; neuroanatomical
D) acetycholine; environmental
E) serotonin; neuroanatomical
A) serotonin; genetic
B) dopamine; genetic
C) epinephrine; neuroanatomical
D) acetycholine; environmental
E) serotonin; neuroanatomical
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16
What is the most commonly abused psychoactive substance in self-treatment of anxiety disorders?
A) cigarettes (nicotine)
B) lithium
C) valium
D) marijuana
E) alcohol
A) cigarettes (nicotine)
B) lithium
C) valium
D) marijuana
E) alcohol
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17
Depression can be distinguished from simple sadness by its ________.
A) cause
B) suicidal fantasies
C) duration
D) form of treatment
E) sleep patterns
A) cause
B) suicidal fantasies
C) duration
D) form of treatment
E) sleep patterns
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18
Drugs that often effective in reducing depression are drugs that…
A) increase adrenaline.
B) increase monamine neurotransmission.
C) reduce monamine neurotransmission.
D) increase GABA neurotransmission.
E) reduce GABA neurotransmission.
A) increase adrenaline.
B) increase monamine neurotransmission.
C) reduce monamine neurotransmission.
D) increase GABA neurotransmission.
E) reduce GABA neurotransmission.
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19
Which of the following is not a symptom associated with mania?
A) increased tendency to talk
B) excessive irritation
C) increased distractibility
D) decreased blinking
E) decreased need for sleep
A) increased tendency to talk
B) excessive irritation
C) increased distractibility
D) decreased blinking
E) decreased need for sleep
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20
Which of the following is false regarding polygraph tests?
A) The accuracy of the polygraph test rests on autonomic responses that accompany fear and nervousness.
B) Polygraph tests are conducted in highly emotional situations.
C) Both control and relevant questions are asked during a polygraph test.
D) Changes in perspiration, respiration, blood pressure and heart rate are recorded.
E) The polygraph test is only used for police investigations.
A) The accuracy of the polygraph test rests on autonomic responses that accompany fear and nervousness.
B) Polygraph tests are conducted in highly emotional situations.
C) Both control and relevant questions are asked during a polygraph test.
D) Changes in perspiration, respiration, blood pressure and heart rate are recorded.
E) The polygraph test is only used for police investigations.
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21
Prosody that is related to the emotional content of the words is known as________prosody.
A) affective
B) sarcastic
C) emotional
D) sentimental
E) enunciated
A) affective
B) sarcastic
C) emotional
D) sentimental
E) enunciated
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22
Which of the following is the most commonly prescribed anxiolytic?
A) 2-hexaprenylhydroquinone
B) benzodiazepine
C) paxil
D) methamphetamine
E) barbiturates
A) 2-hexaprenylhydroquinone
B) benzodiazepine
C) paxil
D) methamphetamine
E) barbiturates
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23
What is the name for a device that measures the amount of pitch variance in a person's speech?
A) audio apparatus
B) speech apparatus
C) breadth measurer
D) audio spectrogram
E) speech capacitator
A) audio apparatus
B) speech apparatus
C) breadth measurer
D) audio spectrogram
E) speech capacitator
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24
Which of the following is a possible characteristic of bipolar disorder?
A) depressed mood
B) elevated mood
C) elevated activity
D) All of the above are characteristics.
E) Only b and c are characteristics.
A) depressed mood
B) elevated mood
C) elevated activity
D) All of the above are characteristics.
E) Only b and c are characteristics.
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25
What does an emotional state refer to?
A) An intensely emotional time period.
B) The perception of one's own emotion.
C) The combination of emotions with feelings.
D) The experience of emotions without feelings.
E) The experience of emotion without physical sensation.
A) An intensely emotional time period.
B) The perception of one's own emotion.
C) The combination of emotions with feelings.
D) The experience of emotions without feelings.
E) The experience of emotion without physical sensation.
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26
What is the term feeling referring to?
A) The physical sensation of emotion.
B) The cognitive experience of emotion.
C) The combination of physical and cognitive experience of emotion.
D) The innate urge to react to a stimulus because of emotion.
E) None of the above.
A) The physical sensation of emotion.
B) The cognitive experience of emotion.
C) The combination of physical and cognitive experience of emotion.
D) The innate urge to react to a stimulus because of emotion.
E) None of the above.
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27
Generalized anxiety disorder is the subjective experience of anxiety coupled with the somatic markers for anxiety. This can be identified as a disorder and not normal anxiety when ________.
A) his anxiety occurs in the absence of an identifiable anxiety-provoking stimulus.
B) a person has anxiety for any extended period of time.
C) the somatic markers for anxiety are causing health problems.
D) an individual scores highly on the Harvard Anxiety Scale (HAS).
E) an fMRI is run on the individual suffering from anxiety.
A) his anxiety occurs in the absence of an identifiable anxiety-provoking stimulus.
B) a person has anxiety for any extended period of time.
C) the somatic markers for anxiety are causing health problems.
D) an individual scores highly on the Harvard Anxiety Scale (HAS).
E) an fMRI is run on the individual suffering from anxiety.
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28
What is the term for a strong tendency to react to every visual stimulus?
A) hypometastasis
B) hypermetastasis
C) hypometamorphis
D) hypometamorphosis
E) hypermetamorphosis
A) hypometastasis
B) hypermetastasis
C) hypometamorphis
D) hypometamorphosis
E) hypermetamorphosis
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29
Aprosodia occurring following damage to the middle cerebral artery of the right hemisphere in which people lose their ability to produce prosodic speech despite being able to recognize prosody in others is known as_________.
A) speech aprosodia
B) separation aprosodia
C) propositional aprosodia
D) motor aprosodia
E) affective aprosodia
A) speech aprosodia
B) separation aprosodia
C) propositional aprosodia
D) motor aprosodia
E) affective aprosodia
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30
Nicole is from Rwanda and recently experienced the horror of a violent civil war. She has now been living in Canada for a year and continues to suffer from nightmares about the war and uncontrollable flashbacks. Whenever there is coverage of war on television, she immediately changes the channel. Which of the following would appropriately diagnose Nicole?
A) Nicole is not suffering from a disorder
B) Generalized anxiety disorder
C) Posttraumatic stress disorder
D) Major depressive disorder
E) Obsessive-compulsive disorder
A) Nicole is not suffering from a disorder
B) Generalized anxiety disorder
C) Posttraumatic stress disorder
D) Major depressive disorder
E) Obsessive-compulsive disorder
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31
An individual whose levels of compassion, empathy and guilt appear to be significantly lower than those of the general population is known as a(n)________.
A) zuttrefend
B) psychopath
C) delinquent
D) convict
E) felon
A) zuttrefend
B) psychopath
C) delinquent
D) convict
E) felon
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32
Which of the following would be the correct order in explaining the James- Lange theory of emotions?
A) emotionally provocative stimulus, physiological response, then cognitive experience
B) emotionally provocative stimulus, activation of thalamus, then physiological response
C) emotionally provocative stimulus, cognitive experience, then physiological response
D) emotionally provocative stimulus, activation of thalamus, then cognitive experience
E) activation of thalamus, cognitive experience, then physiological response
A) emotionally provocative stimulus, physiological response, then cognitive experience
B) emotionally provocative stimulus, activation of thalamus, then physiological response
C) emotionally provocative stimulus, cognitive experience, then physiological response
D) emotionally provocative stimulus, activation of thalamus, then cognitive experience
E) activation of thalamus, cognitive experience, then physiological response
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33
"He exhibited a flat affect, and although originally restless, ultimately became remarkedly placid." This quote is used to describe someone with .
A) Generalized anxiety disorder
B) Post traumatic stress disorder
C) Obsessive-compulsive disorder
D) Bipolar disorder
E) Kluver-Bucy syndrome
A) Generalized anxiety disorder
B) Post traumatic stress disorder
C) Obsessive-compulsive disorder
D) Bipolar disorder
E) Kluver-Bucy syndrome
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34
Primates tend to show symptoms of________as a result from bilateral amygdala damage.
A) Generalized anxiety disorder
B) Post traumatic stress disorder
C) Obsessive-compulsive disorder
D) Bipolar disorder
E) Kluver-Bucy syndrome
A) Generalized anxiety disorder
B) Post traumatic stress disorder
C) Obsessive-compulsive disorder
D) Bipolar disorder
E) Kluver-Bucy syndrome
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35
Which of the following statements appropriately describes cognitive impairments in individuals with major depressive disorder?
A) Every individual diagnosed with major depressive disorder shows at least some impairment.
B) The deficits are minor and occur only when the individual is experiencing a depressive episode.
C) The most typical impairment of this disorder is related to spatial ability. .
D) The onset of these deficits is sudden and irreversible.
E) Impairments that are seen in individuals with major depressive disorder are markedly different than those seen in individual with schizophrenia.
A) Every individual diagnosed with major depressive disorder shows at least some impairment.
B) The deficits are minor and occur only when the individual is experiencing a depressive episode.
C) The most typical impairment of this disorder is related to spatial ability. .
D) The onset of these deficits is sudden and irreversible.
E) Impairments that are seen in individuals with major depressive disorder are markedly different than those seen in individual with schizophrenia.
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36
Which of the following drugs is historically the drug of choice for treating the manic portion of bipolar disorder?
A) barbiturates
B) prozac
C) lithium
D) benzodiazepines
E) paxil
A) barbiturates
B) prozac
C) lithium
D) benzodiazepines
E) paxil
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37
Which of the following structures does not show abnormal activity during imaging studies of depressed individuals?
A) posterior parietal cortex
B) amygdala
C) dorsal prefrontal cortex
D) anterior cingulate
A) posterior parietal cortex
B) amygdala
C) dorsal prefrontal cortex
D) anterior cingulate
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38
Which of the following is an actual problem with taking anxiolytics, such as Valium or Librium?
A) Hair loss.
B) The monetary price of these drugs is typically an extreme financial burden.
C) These drugs are not effective for short term, but only for long term management of disorders.
D) The brain becomes tolerant to these drugs relatively quickly
E) These drugs are only effective in approximately half of the individuals who take them.
A) Hair loss.
B) The monetary price of these drugs is typically an extreme financial burden.
C) These drugs are not effective for short term, but only for long term management of disorders.
D) The brain becomes tolerant to these drugs relatively quickly
E) These drugs are only effective in approximately half of the individuals who take them.
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39
Which of the following statements regarding research about psychopathy is
False?
A) Physiologically, people with psychopathy have neurological differences compared to neurologically normal controls.
B) There is support for abnormal amygdala functioning in the psychopath population.
C) When viewing emotive stimuli, psychopaths demonstrate abnormal strategies to process emotional information.
D) Neuroimaging techniques have brought about a greater understand of the mind of individuals who exhibit psychopathy.
E) Incarcerated individuals and psychopaths tend to exhibit similar brain functioning patterns.
False?
A) Physiologically, people with psychopathy have neurological differences compared to neurologically normal controls.
B) There is support for abnormal amygdala functioning in the psychopath population.
C) When viewing emotive stimuli, psychopaths demonstrate abnormal strategies to process emotional information.
D) Neuroimaging techniques have brought about a greater understand of the mind of individuals who exhibit psychopathy.
E) Incarcerated individuals and psychopaths tend to exhibit similar brain functioning patterns.
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40
Emotional states can produce…
A) internal changes associated with the autonomic nervous system.
B) external motor responses.
C) facial expressions.
D) decreases in heart rate.
E) All of the above.
A) internal changes associated with the autonomic nervous system.
B) external motor responses.
C) facial expressions.
D) decreases in heart rate.
E) All of the above.
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