Deck 6: Employee Selection

Question 1

Which of the following most accurately represents the typical steps in the selection process?

A) Candidates participate in employment testing before being interviewed.
B) Supervisors interview candidates followed by individual interviews with the HR department.
C) Candidates are interviewed in the initial stages and again the late stages of the process.
D) Background investigations are carried out near the beginning of the process.

Answer 1

C

Question 2

If an organization did not hire a person who was described as low in predicted success and low in job performance, that situation would be called which of the following?

A) the goal of selection
B) a miss
C) a hit
D) a successful selection system

Answer 2

C

Question 3

Which of the following refers to the use of selection tests to measure applicant KSAOs against competencies for the job?

A) employment equity compliance
B) person-job fit
C) person-organization fit
D) indirect expense

Answer 3

B

Question 4

Organization B is using an interview that requires a panel of three interviewers to complete. The company has found that about half of the time, the interviewers disagree in their ratings such that some members of the panel give the candidate a high rating, while others give the same candidate a low rating. What is the best way to describe the situation?

A) The interview that Organization B is using is not content valid.
B) The interview that Organization B is using is lacking predictive validity.
C) The interview that Organization B is using is not valid.
D) The interview that Organization B is using is not reliable.

Question 5

Organization C has developed a new selection system. The company is interested in determining if the system predicts performance on the job, so Organization C gave the selection tests to 100 existing employees. What is the best way to describe this process?

A) assessing concurrent validity through a cross-validation study
B) assessing concurrent validity through a criterion-related validity study
C) assessing predictive validity through a criterion-related validity study
D) assessing predictive validity through a cross-validation study

Question 6

Which of the following correlation coefficients is indicative of the strongest correlation?

A) -0.4
B)0.8
C)0.2
D) -0.9

Question 7

A scatter plot that represents the relationship between test scores and performance on the job with a test that is NOT valid would look like which of the following descriptions?

A) The dots form a pattern that resembles a line going from high to low
B) The dots form a pattern that resembles a line going from low to high
C) There is very little or no pattern in the dots.
D) The dots form a box pattern.

Question 8

Which of the following conditions represents a test that could be described as "construct valid"?

A) A professor puts one essay question on the final exam, and that essay question is drawn from the chapter that she feels is the most important.
B) A manager uses a work sample test used for selection that has facets that tap in to every major aspect of the job.
C) A researcher gives a test of "job satisfaction" to a group of participants and checks to make sure that his results correlate with other measures of satisfaction.
D) A manager assesses how effective his selection test is by checking the performance of successful candidates months after they are hired.

Question 9

Why has interest in person-organization fit been increasing?

A) because of organizations' increased need for teamwork and flexibility
B) because of the movement toward union-free hiring
C) because job descriptions are becoming more rigid
D) because of advances in selection tools

Question 10

Which of the following represents an essential factor in the selection procedure, regardless of the selection methods used?

A) lengthy and thorough
B) quick and efficient
C) reliable and valid
D) a positive experience for applicants

Question 11

How can you obtain a higher validity coefficient?

A) by ensuring that the selection tests are valid
B) by ensuring that the selections tests are reliable
C) by combining two or more tests or other predictors
D) by relying on validity generalization

Question 12

What is one of the most important processes in establishing validity?

A) criterion related validation
B) correlation
C) cross-validation
D) content validation

Question 13

Six months ago, Organization A used a new selection system to hire 100 front-line staff members. With six months of performance data in hand, Organization A is interested in determining if its new selection system predicts performance on the job. What is the best way to describe this process?

A) assessing concurrent validity through a cross-validation study
B) assessing concurrent validity through a criterion-related validity study
C) assessing predictive validity through a criterion-related validity study
D) assessing predictive validity through a cross-validation study

Question 14

Which of the following refers to the degree to which selection procedures yield comparable data over a period of time?

A) consistency
B) reliability
C) validity
D) conformity

Question 15

Giving applicants a clerical aptitude test and then tracking their performance six months later is an example of which of the following?

A) predictive validity
B) concurrent validity
C) content validity
D) correlational validity

Question 16

Organization X applies validity data from another similar job situation to its own organization. What is this process called?

A) validity generalization
B) content validation
C) predictive validation
D) criterion-related validation

Question 17

Which of the following is the process in which a test or test battery is administered to a different sample (drawn from the same population) for the purpose of verifying the results obtained from the original validation study?

A) redundancy validation
B) repeat validation
C) cross-validation
D) inferential validation

Question 18

Which of the following terms refers to the extent to which good performance on a test correlates with high marks on a performance review?

A) criterion-related validity
B) content validity
C) construct validity
D) cross-validation

Question 19

Which of the following terms refers to the degree to which inferences drawn from interviews, test scores, and other selection procedures are supported by evidence (such as good job performance)?

A) evidential
B) accuracy
C) reliability
D) validity

Question 20

When would an applicant be rejected during the selection procedure?

A) after the preliminary interview
B) after completing the application blank
C) after selection test results are received
D) at any step in the procedure

Question 21

Which of the following best describes personality tests?

A) They easily demonstrate job-relatedness.
B) They can inadvertently discriminate against individuals who would otherwise perform effectively.
C) They measure intelligence.
D) They measure an applicant's preference for certain activities over others.

Question 22

Which of the following best describes the use of reference checks?

A) They are no longer used because organizations won't share information about previous employees for fear of litigation.
B) Their usefulness is limited because most managers will not share performance data.
C) Some organizations have detailed forms for previous employers to fill out in order to get the best information.
D) New human rights laws prohibit their use.

Question 23

Intelligence, mechanical comprehension, and anxiety are examples of which of the following?

A) job requirements
B) job characteristics
C) theories
D) constructs

Question 24

Which of the following is currently the most effective way to assess a person's honesty during the selection process?

A) polygraph testing
B) graphology testing
C) background tests
D) integrity testing

Question 25

Which of the following types of test is increasingly being aided by computer simulations?

A) personality tests
B) physical ability tests
C) cognitive ability tests
D) work sample tests

Question 26

Why would an organization use an integrity test?

A) because even though such tests are not correlated with reduced disruptive behaviours, they have been correlated with reduced turnover
B) because such tests are designed to identify thieves
C) because not only do these tests reduce theft, but they also have been shown to have a relationship with performance on the job
D) because in using an integrity test, you can avoid the use of most other selection tests, since it has been shown that these are good stand-alone predictors

Question 27

Which of the following types of test is the Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT)?

A) a cognitive ability test
B) a personality test
C) a physical ability test
D) an interest inventory

Question 28

Which of the following best describes credit reports?

A) Organizations must advise and receive written consent from the applicant they request a credit report.
B) Organizations can request a report on any employee at any time without consent.
C) Organizations do not have to inform applicants if adverse decisions are made based on information in the report.
D) Organizations cannot make adverse decisions based on information in such a report.

Question 29

Why are biographical information blanks difficult for applicants to fake?

A) They require detailed answers.
B) They rarely have obviously right or wrong answers.
C) They are administered by extremely knowledgeable interviewers.
D) They require applicants to respond quickly.

Question 30

Which of the following is a legal means of screening out applicants who pose a security risk?

A) polygraph testing
B) a pencil-and-paper honesty test
C) a voice stress analyzer
D) deceptograph testing

Question 31

Asking a candidate for an auto mechanic position to disassemble and reassemble a carburetor is an example of which of the following?

A) a work sample test
B) a job knowledge test
C) a physical ability test
D) an interest inventory

Question 32

Which of the following measures mental capabilities such as general intelligence, verbal fluency, numerical ability, or reasoning ability?

A) a personality and interest inventory
B) a physical ability test
C) a cognitive ability test
D) a job sample

Question 33

Which of the following is appropriate to ask on an application form?

A) asking if the applicant has prior arrests
B) asking if the applicant is eligible to be bonded
C) asking if the applicant has ever been in jail
D) asking if the applicant has ever been caught stealing

Question 34

Omega Organization is using a selection test that asks questions like "I tend to work on projects alone" and "I know what is expected of me in social situations." What kind of test is this?

A) an aptitude test
B) an achievement test
C) a conscientiousness test
D) a personality inventory

Question 35

Which of the following types of interview provides the greatest consistency or standardization with respect to the questions asked?

A) a nondirective interview
B) a situational interview
C) a structured interview
D) an unstructured interview

Question 36

Which of the following is NOT a reason why interviews are popular as a selection method?

A) Interviews are the most valid method of selection.
B) Interviews are practical for dealing with a small number of applicants.
C) Interviews function as a public relations tool.
D) Interviewers have faith in their ability to make selection judgments.

Question 37

Which of the following types of test measures dispositional characteristics such as extroversion, inquisitiveness, and dependability?

A) personality tests
B) cognitive ability tests
C) physical ability tests
D) supervisory and managerial ability tests

Question 38

Which of the following best captures the current state of thinking on the use of biographical information blanks?

A) Personal questions are viewed as inappropriate in a selection setting.
B) It is very time consuming to score them, but they are considered valid in particular industries, such as health care.
C) They are not considered valid.
D) They are a very valid method of predicting job success.

Question 39

Delta Organization is using a selection test that asks questions requiring the applicant to draw logical conclusions from a series of scenarios. What kind of test is this?

A) an aptitude test
B) an achievement test
C) a conscientiousness test
D) a personality inventory

Question 40

Which of the following lists of information sources about job candidates is ranked from most useful to least useful?

A) applications, background checks, graphology
B) polygraph tests, graphology, applications
C) graphology, background checks, biographical information blanks
D) polygraphs, biographical information blanks, graphology

Question 41

Organization Beta is hiring 20 new staff for front-line positions. The interview the company is using involves giving the applicant hypothetical incidents and asking how he or she would respond. What is this type of interview called?

A) a behavioural description interview
B) a panel interview
C) a situational interview
D) a structured interview

Question 42

Person-organization fit has become more of a focus in firms that need teamwork and flexibility.

Question 43

Which of the following refers to an interview in which an applicant is given a hypothetical incident and is asked how he or she would respond to it?

A) a computer interview
B) a panel interview
C) a situational interview
D) a nondirective interview

Question 44

Which of the following should the selection decision should focus on?

A) the strategic objectives of the organization's competition
B) the personality match of the applicant and the supervisor
C) the motivation of the applicant
D) both "can-do" and "will-do" factors of the applicant

Question 45

Which of the following types of interview allows the applicant the maximum amount of freedom in determining the course of discussion?

A) a nondirective interview
B) a depth interview
C) a situational interview
D) a structured interview

Question 46

Predictive validity is assessed when the test scores of job applicants are held against the performance data for existing employees.

Question 47

A manager is examining the number of applicants for a job compared to the number of people needed to be hired. What is this figure called?

A) the yield ratio
B) the selection ratio
C) the base ratio
D) the validity coefficient

Question 48

Organization T uses a decision-making model in which an applicant is allowed to score poorly in one area of the selection tests, as long as he or she scores very high in another area. What is this type of decision-making model called?

A) a statistical model
B) a multiple hurdle model
C) a compensatory model
D) a multiple cutoff model

Question 49

When trying to achieve person-organization fit, managers will pass up potential employees who don't embrace the values of the company even if they have excellent job skills.

Question 50

Measuring KSAOs of an applicant against the competencies required for the job is called person-organization fit.

Question 51

Validity refers to what a selection procedure measures and how well it measures it.

Question 52

"Tell me about the last time you disciplined an employee" is an example of which of the following?

A) a behavioural description interview question
B) a panel interview question
C) a computer interview question
D) a closed response interview question

Question 53

If an organization's selection procedures yield comparable data over a period of time, the procedures are valid.

Question 54

Questions contained in structured job interviews should be based on which of the following?

A) job analysis
B) job design
C) job specialization
D) job utilization

Question 55

In most organizations, selection is an ongoing process.

Question 56

What does a selection ratio of .9 mean?

A) It means 90 percent of the applicants applying to the position will be hired.
B) It means 10 percent of the applicants applying to the position will be hired.
C) It means 9 percent of the applicants applying to the position will be hired.
D) It means 1 percent of the applicants applying to the position will be hired.

Question 57

Reliability refers to the extent to which two methods yield similar results, but not to the agreement between two or more raters.

Question 58

The "can do" factors of an applicant include which of the following?

A) knowledge, skills, and abilities
B) personality, values, and motivation
C) honesty and integrity
D) motivation

Question 59

Which of the following best describes drug testing in the selection process?

A) It is conducted in most Canadian workplaces.
B) It is illegal in Canada.
C) It is conducted more frequently in Canada than in the United States.
D) It is conducted by very few Canadian organizations.

Question 60

Organization Omega is hiring 20 new front-line employees. The company is using an interview that involves three people taking turns asking questions and then pooling their scores of the responses. What is this type of interview called?

A) a behavioural description interview
B) a panel interview
C) a situational interview
D) a structured interview

Question 61

Most organizations require application forms to be completed because they provide a fairly quick and systematic means of obtaining a variety of information about the applicant.

Question 62

A validity coefficient of -1.00 indicates the complete absence of a relationship between the predictor and criterion data.

Question 63

The higher the overall validity of a selection procedure, the greater the chances of hiring individuals who will be the better performers.

Question 64

It is estimated that at least 30 percent of applicants stretch the truth on their résumés.

Question 65

Studies have shown that an objective scoring of biographical information blanks and application forms is one of the most potentially valid methods that can be used to predict job success.

Question 66

Application forms should always require relevant dates, including date of birth.

Question 67

Although many organizations are encouraging applicants to apply for jobs online, this practice slows down the application process.

Question 68

Since biographical information blanks rarely have obviously right or wrong answers, they are difficult to fake.

Question 69

Content validity is the most direct and least complicated type of validity to assess.

Question 70

Measuring construct validity requires linking a psychological test to job performance.

Question 71

Predictive and concurrent validity are determined by comparing test scores with supervisor performance ratings.

Question 72

A validity coefficient of 0.00 indicates the complete absence of a relationship between the predictor and criterion data.

Question 73

Concurrent validity involves testing applicants and obtaining criterion data after they have been on the job for some indefinite period.

Question 74

In general, the criterion-related method of assessing selection test validity is preferred over other methods because it is based on empirical data.

Question 75

Asking an applicant for an accounting position to solve accounting problems similar to those encountered on the job is an example of construct validity.

Question 76

Criterion-related validity is the extent to which a selection tool predicts or correlates with important elements of work behaviour.

Question 77

The closer the content of the selection instrument to actual work samples or behaviours, the higher the content validity.

Question 78

Online applications can speed up the selection process, combine information, and disseminate promising leads to hiring managers more efficiently.

Question 79

Correlation (validity) coefficients range from 0.00 to 1.00.

Question 80

Employers are required by law to provide references for former employees.