Deck 5: To Xicology

Question 1

In paracetamol overdose, the accepted time interval for effective treatment post-ingestion with the specific antidote is only:

A) one hour.
B) 10-15 hours.
C) 20-24 hours.
D) up to 48 hours.

Answer 1

10-15 hours.

Question 2

Chelating agents:

A) are used in methanol poisoning.
B) facilitate the elimination of heavy metals such as lead, cyanide and mercury.
C) are used in the management of bites and stings by poisonous animals.
D) neutralise the organophosphate sprays used in agriculture.

Answer 2

facilitate the elimination of heavy metals such as lead, cyanide and mercury.

Question 3

The principle of management of clinical drug overdose that takes precedence over all others is:

A) life support.
B) client assessment.
C) drug detoxification.
D) drug elimination.

Answer 3

life support.

Question 4

The passing of a client's blood across a medium containing adsorbent beads is called:

A) haemoperfusion.
B) haemosiderosis.
C) haemodialysis.
D) haemolysis.

Question 5

Which one of the following is not a component of client assessment in the management of clinical drug overdose?

A) Determining the time that poisoning occurred.
B) Determining if the client had any previous episodes of drug overdose.
C) Recognising the clinical manifestations of the overdose.
D) Ordering laboratory tests of the client's blood.

Question 6

Which of the following chelating agents is used in cyanide poisoning?

A) Calcium disodium edetate.
B) Dimercaprol.
C) D-penicillamine.
D) Dicobalt edetate.

Question 7

A key aspect of client assessment in the management of poisoning is:

A) maintaining respiration.
B) administering a cathartic agent.
C) determining the time of poisoning.
D) administering an antidote.

Question 8

For which animal should envenomation not be treated by the use of a pressure-immobilisation bandage?

A) Blue-ringed octopus.
B) Venomous snake.
C) Redback spider.
D) Funnel-web spider.

Question 9

For which principle associated with the management of clinical drug overdose is gastric lavage a component?

A) Client assessment.
B) Life support.
C) Drug decontamination and detoxification.
D) Drug neutralisation and elimination.

Question 10

Which of the following statements is not usually given by sportspeople as a reason for drug doping?

A) To increase popularity amongst peers.
B) To gain a competitive edge.
C) To cope with stress.
D) Dissatisfaction with current performance.

Question 11

A specific antidote for an overdose of an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor is:

A) physostigmine.
B) atropine.
C) acetylcysteine.
D) naloxone.

Question 12

Antivenoms:

A) are made from the blood of humans that have been bitten by poisonous animals.
B) stimulate antibody formation in the affected person.
C) commonly cause allergic reactions in clients who receive treatment.
D) used for snakebite can be used in cases of envenomation by poisonous spiders.

Question 13

The administration of an emetic such as Ipecac is superseded by activated charcoal in the treatment of poisoning, because Ipecac:

A) does not induce complete stomach emptying.
B) is more toxic.
C) can cause sedation in young children which is contraindicated.
D) all of the above.

Question 14

Which one of the following is considered a banned substance by WADA?

A) Caffeine.
B) Alcohol.
C) Pseudoephedrine.
D) Diuretics.

Question 15

Which of the following reactions may occur in response to the toxins contained in venoms?

A) Neurological impairment.
B) Clotting disorders.
C) Cardiovascular collapse.
D) All of the above.

Question 16

In the management of poisoning, sorbitol (a hyperosmolar laxative) is no longer recommended as it:

A) is very expensive.
B) causes fluid overload.
C) causes dehydration through fluid shifts.
D) can only be administered via nasogastric tube.

Question 17

One rationale given for misuse of narcotic agents by sportspeople is to:

A) induce anabolic effects.
B) produce euphoria.
C) promote aggression.
D) increase blood oxygen-carrying capacity.

Question 18

In order to facilitate the pooling of stomach contents and hinder their movement into the duodenum, an unconscious person undergoing gastric lavage needs to be positioned:

A) on their back.
B) on their right side.
C) on their left side.
D) in a semi-recumbent position.

Question 19

Systemic absorption of venoms can be minimised by:

A) the application of a pressure-immobilisation bandage.
B) lying down.
C) lying down and elevating the limbs.
D) the application of heat packs.

Question 20

An appropriate antidote to warfarin overdose is:

A) protamine sulphate.
B) pralidoxime iodide.
C) vitamin K.
D) vitamin D.

Question 21

The use of anabolic androgenic steroids by sportspeople is associated with the following physiological effects except:

A) increase in erythrocyte production.
B) increase in skeletal muscle mass.
C) shortening of injury recovery time.
D) increase in self-confidence, endurance and aggression.

Question 22

Thioridazine is contraindicated with medications that:

A) have a high allergenic potential.
B) depress the central nervous system.
C) prolong the Q-T interval of the cardiac cycle.
D) cause vasoconstriction of arteries.

Question 23

A chelating agent that can be used in the management of magnesium poisoning is:

A) calcium gluconate.
B) dicobalt edetate.
C) calcium disodium edetate.
D) desferrioxamine mesylate.

Question 24

Which body organ is monitored before and during naltrexone treatment?

A) Brain.
B) Liver.
C) Heart.
D) Kidneys.

Question 25

In association with the management of poisoning, treating fluid and electrolyte imbalances are considered part of which stage?

A) Client assessment.
B) Decontamination and detoxification.
C) Elimination and neutralisation.
D) Life support.

Question 26

Decontamination of an ingested substance is considered if less than ________ has elapsed since the poisoning occurred.

A) 10 hours.
B) 5 hours.
C) 4 hours.
D) 2 hours.

Question 27

The chronic use of which of the following drugs is associated with problems such as amotivational syndrome, depression, anxiety, irritability, sleep disturbance, and abnormal changes in reproductive cells.

A) Amphetamine.
B) Amyl nitrite.
C) Cocaine.
D) Marijuana.

Question 28

Which treatment is usually the first line of treatment following a clinical overdose?

A) Ipecacuanha.
B) Gastric lavage.
C) Activated charcoal.
D) Ammonium chloride.

Question 29

Clients taking warfarin (which inhibits blood clotting) should be educated about their alcohol consumption, in particular that:

A) alcohol can decrease intravascular clotting, therefore making blood even 'thinner'.
B) alcohol causes increased thrombotic activity, which contradicts the intended effect of warfarin.
C) alcohol and warfarin will crystallise when taken together.
D) drinking alcohol is not problematic as long as warfarin is taken sublingually.

Question 30

In sedating individuals who have been affected by ecstasy (3-methoxy-4, 5-methylenedioxyamphetamine or MDMA) it is preferable to start with a relatively:

A) high dose of benzodiazepine medication and then titrate downwards.
B) low dose of benzodiazepine medication and then titrate upwards.
C) high dose of antipsychotic medication and then titrate downwards.
D) low dose of antipsychotic medication and then titrate upwards.

Question 31

Common adverse effects of atropine, due to blockage of cholinergic muscarinic receptors, include: dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, tachycardia and urinary retention.

Question 32

Diuretic agents are used in sport:

A) to mask the presence of banned drugs.
B) to enhance the action of anabolic-androgenic steroids.
C) to improve concentration.
D) mainly by archers, shooters and yachtsmen.

Question 33

One challenge for health professionals administering naloxone for acute narcotic overdose is that:

A) patients can become addicted to naloxone.
B) the half-life of naloxone is longer than many narcotics, which frustrates patients.
C) the half-life of naloxone is shorter than many narcotics so symptoms of overdose can reoccur.
D) it can only be administered intravenously.

Question 34

What type of medication can be given prophylactically to reduce the chance of serum sickness developing in clients who have received large doses of antivenom?

A) An intravenous antibiotic.
B) An oral corticosteroid.
C) An oral antihistamine.
D) A topical antifungal agent.

Question 35

For treatment of acute narcotic overdose, naloxone works because it is:

A) a partial antagonist, which acts on opioid receptors.
B) a full antagonist, which acts on opioid receptors.
C) a full agonist, which acts on opioid receptors.
D) a partial agonist, which acts on opioid receptors.

Question 36

Which of the following statements about caffeine is correct?

A) Caffeine is a very safe drug.
B) Caffeine can be ulcerogenic and exacerbates peptic ulcers.
C) Caffeine has agonistic action on the adenosine receptors.
D) Caffeine has an excitatory action on the enzyme phosphodiesterase.

Question 37

Which of the following statements is not true in relation to detection of drug use in sport?

A) Individual differences in pharmacokinetics affect the results of drug tests.
B) Sportswomen are able to use some drugs on the WADA banned list that sportsmen cannot.
C) Peptide hormone misuse can be difficult to detect.
D) Low dose anabolic-androgenic steroid use causes feminisation in men.

Question 38

Probenecid has been banned for use in elite sport as it can:

A) increase the effectiveness of antibiotics giving athletes an unfair advantage.
B) inhibit the tubular secretion of some banned substances, therefore reducing the levels of the substance that is measurable in urine.
C) act as a stimulant.
D) increase the rate of repair for muscle cells therefore accelerating recovery times after injury.

Question 39

Naltrexone can be used to manage alcoholism because it:

A) sedates people reducing their appetite.
B) reduces cravings by blocking the pleasurable effects of alcohol.
C) reduces ethanol absorption.
D) causes nausea.

Question 40

Which one of the following could be perceived as a benefit associated with anabolic-androgenic steroid use?

A) Mood swings.
B) Premature completion of long bone growth.
C) Increased skeletal muscle mass.
D) An altered blood lipid profile.

Question 41

The effects of excessive stimulation of cholinergic nicotinic receptors include: nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, sweating, drooling, bradycardia and miosis.

Question 42

Hallucinogens can distort a person's perceptions or produce hallucinations that affect any or all of the senses.