Deck 2: Examination and Management of Acute Pathologies

Question 1

Which of the following would not be grounds for immediate referral to a physician?

A) Reports of significant chest pain
B) Quadriceps hematoma
C) Cyanosis
D) Reports of difficulty breathing

Answer 1

B

Question 2

Which of the following would be a good practice when adding a splint or protective device to an injured area?

A) Check with the referee prior to the event to make sure it is legal.
B) Don't worry about the referee; you are the athletic trainer and you know best.
C) All splints are legal, no matter their construction.
D) Only over-the-counter or off-the-shelf splints and braces should be used.

Answer 2

A

Question 3

After removal from the field,a more detailed examination process ensues.Which of the following is not a goal of this examination?

A) Obtain enough information to formulate a return-to-play decision.
B) Determine long-term rehabilitation goals.
C) Determine a diagnosis.
D) Decide on an immediate plan of care.

Answer 3

B

Question 4

After colliding with another player,a soccer player is unconscious on the field when you arrive.What would be your main concern?

A) Stabilizing the cervical spine
B) Checking for bleeding
C) Checking pupillary response
D) Stopping epistaxis

Question 5

For every minute that defibrillation is delayed,the chance of surviving sudden cardiac arrest reduces by what percentage?

A) 1%
B) 5%
C) 7%
D) 10%

Question 6

Swelling after an injury is often associated with disruption of soft tissue.Which of the following injuries may present with swelling that is disproportionate to the injury?

A) Ankle sprain
B) Prepatellar bursitis
C) Shoulder sprain
D) Quadriceps tear

Question 7

Which of the following conditions would not warrant activating emergency medical services (EMS)and stopping an on-field evaluation?

A) Prolonged loss of consciousness
B) Cyanosis
C) Left shoulder pain
D) Unequal chest expansion

Question 8

Shaking the victim or using "smelling salts" to arouse an unconscious athlete should not be done for which of the following reasons?

A) Informed consent hasn't been given.
B) The smelling salts may burn the nasal passage.
C) Shaking the victim without consent could be interpreted as battery.
D) The cervical spine may be compromised.

Question 9

After splinting an injury,the athlete complains that the pain is getting worse.Which of the following might give you information regarding the injury?

A) Visual analog pain scale
B) Taking off the splint
C) The athlete realizing that he or she is injured and the pain is going to increase
D) Capillary refill distal to the injury site

Question 10

When performing an immediate on-field examination,which of the following injuries should be ruled out first?

A) Inhibition of the cardiovascular and respiratory systems
B) Life-threatening trauma to the head or spinal column
C) Fractures
D) Profuse bleeding

Question 11

If an athlete is returned to play,how much of a difference in bilateral strength should be allowed?

A) 40%
B) 30%
C) 15%
D) 0%

Question 12

Which of the following is not a correct principle of splinting and immobilization?

A) Splint the extremity in the position in which it was found.
B) Establish a baseline level of sensation and skin temperature so that any changes can be noted.
C) Immobilize the joint(s) proximal and distal to the injured site.
D) Completely cover the fingers or toes so that they don't get cold.

Question 13

Before you perform manual muscle testing (MMT)on an athlete's knee,which of the following should occur first?

A) The athlete should be able to walk without an antalgic gait.
B) The athlete should be able to perform active ROM (AROM).
C) The athlete should be assessed to make sure there are no positive ligamentous stress tests.
D) The athlete should be able to jog in place.

Question 14

Which of the following is not identified within an emergency action plan (EAP)?

A) Facility design
B) Personnel
C) Equipment
D) Lines of communication

Question 15

The return-to-activity decision should be based on all of the following except the

A) relative risk of reinjury.
B) athlete's functional ability.
C) athlete's gender.
D) athlete's age.

Question 16

As you stand on the sideline of a football game,you see a player go down on the field while holding his knee.Which of the following is the first step in the evaluation process?

A) Seeing the mechanism of injury
B) Getting a history once you arrive at the player's side
C) Palpating the injury
D) Performing passive range of motion (PROM)

Question 17

Which of the following is not part of the primary survey?

A) Airway
B) Breathing
C) Circulation
D) Bleeding

Question 18

An athlete goes down on the football field during a practice after colliding with another player.When you arrive,you realize the athlete is lying prone and is unconscious.What is your primary concern?

A) Rolling the athlete over
B) Activating EMS
C) Calling the physician
D) Assessing the athlete's ABCs

Question 19

Which of the following sports requires that the athletic trainer be summoned onto the field/court/mat before entering?

A) Soccer
B) Football
C) Baseball
D) Softball

Question 20

Which of the following history questions should not be asked during an on-field evaluation of an elbow injury?

A) "Where does it hurt?"
B) "Can you feel your fingers?"
C) "Have you hurt this before?"
D) "Did someone contact you?"

Question 21

During what part of the on-field examination is the examiner able to gain an immediate impression of the integrity of the capsule and ligaments involved in the injury before muscle guarding or swelling masks the degree of instability?

A) History
B) Palpation
C) Joint stability tests
D) Secondary survey

Question 22

What part of the on-field examination is brief,compared with the clinical evaluation,and tends to focus on the immediate events as reported by the athlete?

A) History
B) Palpation
C) Joint stability tests
D) Secondary survey

Question 23

Which of the following represents a correct functional progression for a soccer player trying to return to play?

A) Walk, jog, change direction while jogging, run
B) Walk, jog, dribble while walking, run
C) Jog, walk while changing direction, dribble
D) Walk, jog, run straight, jog while changing direction

Question 24

During the on-field evaluation immediately following an injury,the focus of the examination should be on all of the following except

A) how and if to splint the body part.
B) how to get the athlete back into the game.
C) how to remove the athlete from the playing area.
D) where to transport the athlete.

Question 25

Which of the following is not true when developing an EAP?

A) Coordinate the EAP with the pertinent individuals.
B) Establish one written EAP that is not venue specific.
C) Determine the venue-specific access to early defibrillation.
D) Integrate the EAP into the local EMS response.

Question 26

What type of splint is arguably the most widely used?

A) SAM
B) Halo
C) Vacuum
D) Gutter

Question 27

After knee dislocation,angiography is warranted whether or not there is a palpable pulse and/or signs of ischemia.

Question 28

Which type of breathing is identified by respirations in which the diaphragm is inactive?

A) Apneustic
B) Biot's
C) Thoracic
D) Cheyne-Stokes

Question 29

In which sport are players permitted to wear only one elbow pad that does not exceed 10 inches in length?

A) Basketball
B) Baseball
C) Wrestling
D) Ice hockey

Question 30

During an on-field examination,which is not considered when specifically palpating bony structures?

A) Bony alignment
B) Crepitus
C) Joint alignment
D) Swelling

Question 31

During what part of the on-field examination do findings of possible fractures,joint dislocations,or neurovascular pathology warrant terminating the evaluation and transporting the athlete to a medical facility?

A) History
B) Palpation
C) Joint stability tests
D) Secondary survey

Question 32

During the inspection portion of the on-field evaluation,which of the following is not a finding that warrants immediate physician referral?

A) Obvious fracture
B) Unequal chest expansion
C) Obvious joint dislocation
D) Report of significant chest pain

Question 33

What is the term for the temporary cessation of breathing?

A) Apnea
B) Anaphylaxis
C) Dyspnea
D) Allergy

Question 34

What is the term for a severe,potentially life-threatening allergic reaction?

A) Apnea
B) Anaphylaxis
C) Dyspnea
D) Allergy

Question 35

What ROM test(s)must an athlete be able to perform while on the field in order to be allowed to walk off the field?

A) AROM and PROM
B) AROM and RROM, but not PROM
C) AROM only
D) AROM, RROM, and PROM

Question 36

Which of the following is considered the most important test to be performed while the athlete is still on the field?

A) AROM
B) Resistive ROM (RROM)
C) MMT
D) Weight-bearing status

Question 37

In which sport are only two injury timeouts given for a cumulative maximum of 90 seconds for the entire game or match?

A) Basketball
B) Baseball
C) Wrestling
D) Ice hockey

Question 38

After the primary survey,what part of the on-field examination is performed when the athlete is unconscious,unable to move (or should not be moved),or unable to communicate with the responder?

A) History
B) Palpation
C) Joint stability tests
D) Secondary survey

Question 39

During the examination of an acute injury,which of the following findings may be so profound that the athlete is transported and no other information need be collected?

A) Sprain
B) Strain
C) Joint dislocation
D) Paresthesia

Question 40

Which type of breathing might result from damage to the pons?

A) Apneustic
B) Biot's
C) Thoracic
D) Cheyne-Stokes

Question 41

Assessing motor function distal to the site of injury is indicated whether or not you have to move the involved bone or joint.