Deck 33: Adaptive Immunity

Question 1

The major class of antibody present in the mucous membranes of the body is:

A) IgG.
B) IgE.
C) IgA.
D) IgD.

Answer 1

C

Question 2

The antibody produced after initial contact with an antigen is:

A) IgE.
B) IgG.
C) IgM.
D) IgA.

Answer 2

C

Question 3

The complement system can be activated by:

A) the binding of complement protein 1 to the complement-binding site on the antibody molecule.
B) the binding of complement protein 3 to bacteria or viruses in the presence of properdin.
C) nonspecific immune mechanisms.
D) all of the above.

Answer 3

D

Question 4

Which of the following is true of lymphokines?

A) They are produced by B cells.
B) They inhibit macrophage activity.
C) Lymphotoxin is an example of a lymphokine.
D) They are produced by helper T cells.

Question 5

Memory cells:

A) immediately secrete antibodies when they are formed.
B) are supporting cells and are not related to antibody production.
C) are a special type of T cell.
D) become plasma cells when exposed to an antigen.

Question 6

The antibody normally constituting the highest percentage of antibodies in the blood is:

A) IgE.
B) IgG.
C) IgM.
D) IgA.

Question 7

The function of which antibody is basically unknown?

A) IgE
B) IgD
C) IgM
D) IgA

Question 8

Which of the following can activate complement?

A) T cells
B) Interferon
C) Properdin
D) Lymphokine

Question 9

The predominant antibody of a secondary response is:

A) IgE.
B) IgG.
C) IgM.
D) IgA.

Question 10

Which of the following can activate, or turn on, an inactive B cell?

A) Binding to its specific antibody
B) Binding to its specific antigen
C) Helper T cell
D) All B cells are activated when an infant is born.

Question 11

The antibody associated with allergic reaction is:

A) IgE.
B) IgG.
C) IgM.
D) IgA.

Question 12

The antibody commonly found in tears and saliva is:

A) IgE.
B) IgD.
C) IgM.
D) IgA.

Question 13

Complement can best be described as a(n):

A) enzyme in blood.
B) lymphokine.
C) antibody.
D) hormone.

Question 14

According to the clonal selection theory, antigens select lymphocyte clones by:

A) the chemicals secreted by the lymphocytes.
B) the proximity of the lymphocytes to the antigens.
C) the shape of receptors on the lymphocyte's plasma membrane.
D) producing toxins.

Question 15

Specific immunity is controlled by two classes of lymphocytes called:

A) antigens and antibodies.
B) T cells and B cells.
C) red blood cells and white blood cells.
D) agglutinogens and agglutinins.

Question 16

Macromolecules that induce the immune system to make certain responses are called:

A) antigens.
B) plasma proteins.
C) antibodies.
D) prostaglandins.

Question 17

The most abundant circulating antibody, the one that normally makes up about 75% of all the antibodies in the blood, is:

A) IgG.
B) IgA.
C) IgE.
D) IgM.

Question 18

The constant region of the light chain in an antibody consists of _____ amino acids.

A) 50
B) 77
C) 106
D) 168

Question 19

B cell mechanisms are classified as _____ immunity.

A) nonspecific
B) antibody-mediated
C) cell-mediated
D) Both A and B are correct.

Question 20

An immunoglobulin, or antibody molecule, consists of _____ heavy and _____ light polypeptide chains.

A) two; two
B) four; two
C) two; four
D) four; four

Question 21

Which antibody has two antigen-binding sites?

A) IgM
B) IgA
C) IgG
D) Both A and B

Question 22

When a child develops measles and acquires immunity to a subsequent infection, this type of immunity is called _____ immunity.

A) acquired
B) natural
C) active
D) All of the above are correct.

Question 23

Which antibody has four antigen-binding sites?

A) IgM
B) IgA
C) IgD
D) IgG

Question 24

Macrophages sensitize:

A) T cells.
B) B cells.
C) T cells and B cells.
D) none of the above.

Question 25

When an antigen attaches to a naïve B cell, it becomes a(n) _____ cell.

A) memory
B) plasma
C) effector B
D) All of the above are correct.

Question 26

Systemic lupus erythematosus is an example of a(n):

A) B cell-mediated condition.
B) T cell-mediated condition.
C) autoimmune condition that is caused by self-antigens being attacked.
D) isoimmune condition that is caused by self-antigens being attacked.

Question 27

The chemical messengers that T cells release into inflamed tissues are called:

A) pathogens.
B) lymphokines.
C) lymphotoxins.
D) suppressor cells.

Question 28

Which is the best explanation of how immune suppression can be helpful in preventing transplant rejection?

A) The immune system sometimes reacts against foreign antigens in the grafted tissue, causing what is often called a rejection syndrome. Immune suppression drugs reduce the immune system's ability to attack the foreign antigens in the donated tissue.
B) Because rejection is caused by an inappropriate and excessive response to self-antigens, giving immune suppression drugs would reduce this effect.
C) Rejection involves antigen-antibody reactions, mainly IgE triggered by repeated exposure to an allergen, so immune-suppression drugs would reduce the reaction to the allergen, which in this case is the transplanted organ.
D) Delayed allergic response occurs with transplanted organs, so immune-suppressive drugs would reduce the allergic response and decrease rejection.

Question 29

The part of the antibody that combines with the antigen is the:

A) variable region.
B) constant region.
C) carbohydrate chain.
D) complement-binding site.

Question 30

If a blood test indicated that a person had a high level of IgM antibodies in the blood, it could be concluded that:

A) the person's body is responding to a reexposure to an antigen.
B) the person's body is responding to the initial exposure to an antigen.
C) the person has an increasing likelihood that he will become allergic to an antigen.
D) no conclusions could be made.

Question 31

Chris has very bad allergies, especially in the springtime, and is seeking help to overcome her allergic reactions. Why would an antihistamine help Chris be more comfortable?

A) It would counter the effects of the self-antigen reaction.
B) It would replace the allergen with a different chemical and thus reduce her symptoms.
C) It would reduce the antigen-antibody reactions caused by the allergen.
D) It would reduce the amount of human leukocyte antigen in her system.

Question 32

Examples of lymphocytes are:

A) B cells.
B) T cells.
C) both A and B.
D) none of the above.

Question 33

Why is it difficult to predict the total number of acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) cases that will result from known HIV-infected patients?

A) After a person is infected, the signs of AIDS infection might not be apparent for years.
B) The current treatment of highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) alters the infected cells.
C) Infected cells begin to change only after azidothymidine (AZT) treatment is started.
D) So many people have received the vaccine that there is no way to count who actually has the infection.

Question 34

The type of immunity produced by vaccination would be _____ immunity.

A) active natural
B) passive natural
C) active artificial
D) passive artificial

Question 35

Which of the following is not caused by complement protein activity?

A) Vasodilation
B) Agglutination of antigens
C) Cytolysis
D) All of the above are caused by complement protein activity.

Question 36

When a patient starts to have rejection problems with a transplanted organ, the problems are usually caused by:

A) a B cell-mediated condition.
B) human leukocyte antigens (HALs).
C) self-antigens.
D) severe combined immune deficiency (SCID).

Question 37

The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) damages the immune system by _____ cells.

A) invading memory
B) invading T
C) overproduction of B
D) overproduction of plasma

Question 38

Steven had mumps as a child. Why did he not experience symptoms at the age of 41 after he was again exposed to the mumps virus?

A) He had an injection with weakened virus shortly before he was exposed.
B) He had natural passive immunity to ward off the virus.
C) He had artificial passive immunity that he received from his brother after he had the mumps.
D) He developed active immunity as the result of having mumps as a child.

Question 39

Which antibody has 10 antigen-binding sites?

A) IgM
B) IgA
C) IgD
D) IgG

Question 40

In the first stage of their development, B cells are known by all the following terms except _____ B cells.

A) effector
B) naïve
C) inactive
D) virgin

Question 41

An antigen consists of two heavy and two light polypeptide chains.

Question 42

An antibody has one antigen-binding site.

Question 43

When antibodies cause antigens to agglutinate, it allows them to be disposed of by phagocytes more easily.

Question 44

Each light chain in an antibody molecule contains a constant region that consists of 446 amino acids.

Question 45

Inactive B cells produce antibodies that insert on their plasma membranes to serve as antigen receptors.

Question 46

Antigens are macromolecules that induce the immune system to take certain actions.

Question 47

To function independently in the immune process, both B cells and T cells must become thymocytes during development.

Question 48

The second stage of B cell development usually takes place in the lymph nodes and spleen.

Question 49

The combining site on an antibody determines the specificity of that antibody for an antigen.

Question 50

All of the cells in a clone of plasma cells produce identical antibodies.

Question 51

Contact points between immune cells are sometimes called immunological synapses.

Question 52

Most antigens are large protein molecules foreign to the body.

Question 53

Haptens are sometimes called incomplete antigens.

Question 54

Humoral immunity occurs within the plasma.

Question 55

Another name for antigenic determinants is epitopes.

Question 56

T cell immune mechanisms are classified as antibody-mediated immunity.

Question 57

The cloning of T cells produces both memory cells and plasma cells.

Question 58

The somatic recombination hypothesis is one possible explanation for the diversity of antibodies.

Question 59

All antigens have epitopes of the same shape.

Question 60

The heavy chains in an immunoglobulin molecule are about twice as long and weigh about twice as much as light chains.

Question 61

Suppressor T cells function by inhibiting T cell formation.

Question 62

T cells secrete antibodies.

Question 63

IgD is the most understood antibody.

Question 64

Unlike B cells, T cells do not display antigen receptors on their surface membranes.

Question 65

The first vaccination provided immunity against the chickenpox virus.

Question 66

Passive immunity generally lasts longer than active immunity.

Question 67

Even though tumor cells are part of your body, your immune system treats them as "foreign" and tries to destroy them.

Question 68

CD4 and CD8 T cell subsets are clinically important in diagnosing AIDS.

Question 69

The chemical messengers that T cells release into inflamed tissues are called lymphotoxins.

Question 70

Cell-mediated immunity involves T cells.

Question 71

The fetal liver may act as the site for the first stage of T cell development.

Question 72

Both B and T lymphocytes develop from hematopoietic stem cells.

Question 73

The immune mechanism that provides a defense by acting against cancer is termed nonspecific immunity.

Question 74

Inherited immunity and acquired immunity are forms of specific immunity.

Question 75

T cells, by definition, are lymphocytes that have passed through the thyroid gland.

Question 76

Plasma cells can secrete as many as 2000 antibodies per minute.

Question 77

An antibody consists of two heavy and one light polypeptide chains.

Question 78

Suppressor T cells help B cells differentiate into antibody-secreting plasma cells by secreting cytokines such as interleukin-2 and interleukin-4.

Question 79

The surface membranes of cancer cells are thought to have abnormal antigens.

Question 80

IgM is the most predominant class of immunoglobulins in the body.