Deck 22: Reproductive Systems
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Deck 22: Reproductive Systems
1
Choose the statement that is true of meiosis, considering the entire process and the events of all stages.
A)During prophase II, chromosomes re-replicate themselves to form a diploid cell and condense.
B)Sex cells go from being diploid to haploid during meiosis I.
C)Crossover occurs during anaphase I.
D)During anaphase II, the two homologous chromosomes are separated and pulled to opposite ends of the cell.
A)During prophase II, chromosomes re-replicate themselves to form a diploid cell and condense.
B)Sex cells go from being diploid to haploid during meiosis I.
C)Crossover occurs during anaphase I.
D)During anaphase II, the two homologous chromosomes are separated and pulled to opposite ends of the cell.
A
2
The epithelium of the seminiferous tubules consists of
A)adipose cells and chondrocytes.
B)spermatogenic cells and sustentacular cells.
C)spermatogonia and spermatids.
D)interstitial cells and sustentacular cells.
A)adipose cells and chondrocytes.
B)spermatogenic cells and sustentacular cells.
C)spermatogonia and spermatids.
D)interstitial cells and sustentacular cells.
B
3
Semen
A)consists of sperm and accessory organ secretions and not testicular products.
B)is acidic.
C)includes prostaglandins and nutrients.
D)is produced by only one organ.
A)consists of sperm and accessory organ secretions and not testicular products.
B)is acidic.
C)includes prostaglandins and nutrients.
D)is produced by only one organ.
C
4
What would be true of the newly formed sex cells in a person possessing a mutation that completely prevents crossover?
A)The new cells would have less genetic variability because crossing over contributes to proper chromosome shape, so parts of the chromosome would be non-functional.
B)The new cells would have less genetic variability because whole chromosomes would only be entirely maternal or paternal.
C)The new cells would have more genetic variability because crossing over limits transmission of maternal and paternal genes.
D)The new cells would contain abnormal chromosome numbers because crossing over ensures proper division.
A)The new cells would have less genetic variability because crossing over contributes to proper chromosome shape, so parts of the chromosome would be non-functional.
B)The new cells would have less genetic variability because whole chromosomes would only be entirely maternal or paternal.
C)The new cells would have more genetic variability because crossing over limits transmission of maternal and paternal genes.
D)The new cells would contain abnormal chromosome numbers because crossing over ensures proper division.
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5
The number of possible chromosome combinations in a gamete of a human is
A)800.
B)8,000.
C)80,000.
D)8 million.
A)800.
B)8,000.
C)80,000.
D)8 million.
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6
The number of sperm cells that form from a primary spermatocyte is
A)4)
B)16.
C)46.
D)100.
A)4)
B)16.
C)46.
D)100.
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7
In a certain male individual, primary spermatocytes do not divide into secondary spermatocytes, yet still undergo spermiogenesis and form mature sperm. These sperm then fertilize a normal oocyte. What will be true of the zygote?
A)The zygote will have 46 chromosomes instead of 23.
B)The zygote will be diploid instead of haploid.
C)The zygote will have 69 chromosomes instead of 46.
D)The zygote will have only paternal chromosomes.
A)The zygote will have 46 chromosomes instead of 23.
B)The zygote will be diploid instead of haploid.
C)The zygote will have 69 chromosomes instead of 46.
D)The zygote will have only paternal chromosomes.
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8
A man chooses to become sterilized via vasectomy. How will this affect interstitial cells?
A)Injury to the ductus differentia signals for interstitial cells to stop nourishing spermatogenic cells.
B)The procedure of a vasectomy only blocks the movement of sperm through the ductus deferens and won't affect interstitial cells.
C)Interstitial cells lining the ductus deferens stop producing alkaline secretions, killing sperm as they travel through.
D)The vasectomy causes secretions that interrupt testosterone secretion from interstitial cells.
A)Injury to the ductus differentia signals for interstitial cells to stop nourishing spermatogenic cells.
B)The procedure of a vasectomy only blocks the movement of sperm through the ductus deferens and won't affect interstitial cells.
C)Interstitial cells lining the ductus deferens stop producing alkaline secretions, killing sperm as they travel through.
D)The vasectomy causes secretions that interrupt testosterone secretion from interstitial cells.
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9
Which of the following structures is unpaired?
A)Seminal vesicle
B)Ductus deferens
C)Bulbourethral gland
D)Prostate gland
A)Seminal vesicle
B)Ductus deferens
C)Bulbourethral gland
D)Prostate gland
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10
During the first meiotic division
A)sperm and egg form.
B)homologous chromosome pairs separate.
C)homologous chromosome pairs join.
D)the cell becomes diploid.
A)sperm and egg form.
B)homologous chromosome pairs separate.
C)homologous chromosome pairs join.
D)the cell becomes diploid.
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11
In a certain male individual, primary spermatocytes do not divide into secondary spermatocytes, yet still undergo spermiogenesis and form mature sperm. How will the resulting sperm differ from normal sperm?
A)The abnormal sperm will have 23 chromosomes instead of 46.
B)The abnormal sperm will be diploid instead of haploid.
C)The abnormal sperm won't develop a tail or acrosomal cap.
D)The abnormal sperm are all type A cells.
A)The abnormal sperm will have 23 chromosomes instead of 46.
B)The abnormal sperm will be diploid instead of haploid.
C)The abnormal sperm won't develop a tail or acrosomal cap.
D)The abnormal sperm are all type A cells.
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12
A man is exposed to a virus which specifically targets and kills sustentacular cells (Sertoli cells). What effect will this have on spermatogenesis?
A)Spermatogenic cells will starve and cease development because they won't receive the nutrients or support they need.
B)Sperm cells will not mature because spermiogenesis will not occur after meiosis.
C)Spermatogonia will not be stimulated to divide because of lack of testosterone secretion.
D)Mature sperm won't be loaded with enough ATP to fuel flagellar movement.
A)Spermatogenic cells will starve and cease development because they won't receive the nutrients or support they need.
B)Sperm cells will not mature because spermiogenesis will not occur after meiosis.
C)Spermatogonia will not be stimulated to divide because of lack of testosterone secretion.
D)Mature sperm won't be loaded with enough ATP to fuel flagellar movement.
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13
The gubernaculum guides the testis through the ________ canal.
A)penile
B)pelvic
C)inguinal
D)seminiferous
A)penile
B)pelvic
C)inguinal
D)seminiferous
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14
Meiosis is necessary because
A)otherwise the fertilized ovum will have too much genetic material.
B)otherwise the fertilized ovum will have too little genetic material.
C)otherwise reproduction would have to be asexual.
D)otherwise too many mutations will occur.
A)otherwise the fertilized ovum will have too much genetic material.
B)otherwise the fertilized ovum will have too little genetic material.
C)otherwise reproduction would have to be asexual.
D)otherwise too many mutations will occur.
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15
The bulbourethral glands secrete
A)sperm.
B)a mucus-like fluid.
C)blood.
D)sweat.
A)sperm.
B)a mucus-like fluid.
C)blood.
D)sweat.
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16
The head of a sperm is mostly
A)mitochondria.
B)cell membrane.
C)cytoskeleton.
D)nucleus.
A)mitochondria.
B)cell membrane.
C)cytoskeleton.
D)nucleus.
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17
During meiosis II, one spindle fiber fails to attach to a chromosome at the centromere. How will this affect the genetic content of the daughter cells?
A)One daughter cell will have two chromosomes and the other daughter cell will have no chromosomes.
B)One daughter cell will have only maternal genes and the other daughter cell will have only paternal genes.
C)One daughter cell will contain one extra chromosome and the other daughter cell will have one less of that chromosome.
D)One daughter cell will have three copies of a chromosome and the other daughter cell will have two copies of that chromosome.
A)One daughter cell will have two chromosomes and the other daughter cell will have no chromosomes.
B)One daughter cell will have only maternal genes and the other daughter cell will have only paternal genes.
C)One daughter cell will contain one extra chromosome and the other daughter cell will have one less of that chromosome.
D)One daughter cell will have three copies of a chromosome and the other daughter cell will have two copies of that chromosome.
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18
The number of sperm cells in an ejaculate averages
A)about 20 million per milliliter.
B)about 20 million per millimeter.
C)about 20 million per liter.
D)about 120 million per milliliter.
A)about 20 million per milliliter.
B)about 20 million per millimeter.
C)about 20 million per liter.
D)about 120 million per milliliter.
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19
Synapsis occurs during
A)prophase I.
B)metaphase I.
C)anaphase I.
D)telophase I.
A)prophase I.
B)metaphase I.
C)anaphase I.
D)telophase I.
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20
Identify the correct sequence for the steps of meiosis I.
A)Interphase-mitosis-meiosis
B)Telophase I-anaphase I-metaphase I-prophase I
C)46 chromosomes-23 chromosomes-then 46 chromosomes
D)Prophase I-metaphase I-anaphase I-telophase I
A)Interphase-mitosis-meiosis
B)Telophase I-anaphase I-metaphase I-prophase I
C)46 chromosomes-23 chromosomes-then 46 chromosomes
D)Prophase I-metaphase I-anaphase I-telophase I
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21
A circumcision removes
A)the glans penis.
B)the tunica albuginea.
C)the prepuce.
D)the crura.
A)the glans penis.
B)the tunica albuginea.
C)the prepuce.
D)the crura.
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22
The epididymis is a ________ and it ________.
A)compartment inside a testis; secretes testosterone and forms sperm
B)stage of spermatogenesis; forms two sperm cells and semen
C)tightly coiled tube on the outside of the testis; is the location for sperm maturation
D)compartment that contains seminiferous tubules; ejaculates sperm
A)compartment inside a testis; secretes testosterone and forms sperm
B)stage of spermatogenesis; forms two sperm cells and semen
C)tightly coiled tube on the outside of the testis; is the location for sperm maturation
D)compartment that contains seminiferous tubules; ejaculates sperm
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23
The level of testosterone in the blood is increased by
A)a high level of testosterone stimulating the hypothalamus.
B)the hypothalamus stimulating the testes to release LH.
C)LH causing the interstitial cells to release testosterone.
D)a high level of testosterone stimulating the testes to release more LH.
A)a high level of testosterone stimulating the hypothalamus.
B)the hypothalamus stimulating the testes to release LH.
C)LH causing the interstitial cells to release testosterone.
D)a high level of testosterone stimulating the testes to release more LH.
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24
Sperm cells mature in the
A)ductus deferentia.
B)ejaculatory ducts.
C)epididymides.
D)seminal vesicles.
A)ductus deferentia.
B)ejaculatory ducts.
C)epididymides.
D)seminal vesicles.
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25
Undifferentiated spermatogenic cells are called
A)spermatogonia.
B)primary spermatocytes.
C)secondary spermatocytes.
D)spermatids.
A)spermatogonia.
B)primary spermatocytes.
C)secondary spermatocytes.
D)spermatids.
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26
An endocrinologist wants to study testosterone levels in a certain group of males. Which of the following best describes sources in which testosterone can be found and used in this study?
A)Blood only
B)Blood and urine only
C)Urine only
D)Blood, urine, and skin
A)Blood only
B)Blood and urine only
C)Urine only
D)Blood, urine, and skin
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27
The hormone responsible for the development and maintenance of male secondary sex characteristics is
A)LH.
B)FSH.
C)testosterone.
D)gonadotropin-releasing hormone.
A)LH.
B)FSH.
C)testosterone.
D)gonadotropin-releasing hormone.
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28
A Pap smear is used to detect abnormal cells in the
A)urethra.
B)ovary.
C)cervix.
D)vagina.
A)urethra.
B)ovary.
C)cervix.
D)vagina.
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29
Causes of erectile dysfunction include
A)too much exercise.
B)too much sex.
C)not enough sex.
D)underlying disease, such as diabetes mellitus.
A)too much exercise.
B)too much sex.
C)not enough sex.
D)underlying disease, such as diabetes mellitus.
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30
The last fluid expelled from the urethra during ejaculation comes from the
A)testes.
B)bulbourethral gland.
C)prostate gland.
D)seminal vesicles.
A)testes.
B)bulbourethral gland.
C)prostate gland.
D)seminal vesicles.
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31
Male reproductive functions are controlled mainly by hormones from the hypothalamus and
A)posterior pituitary and adrenal glands.
B)anterior pituitary and adrenal glands.
C)posterior pituitary gland and testes.
D)anterior pituitary gland and testes.
A)posterior pituitary and adrenal glands.
B)anterior pituitary and adrenal glands.
C)posterior pituitary gland and testes.
D)anterior pituitary gland and testes.
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32
The tubular part of the uterus that extends downward into the upper vagina is the
A)fundus.
B)cervix.
C)perimetrium.
D)endometrium.
A)fundus.
B)cervix.
C)perimetrium.
D)endometrium.
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33
The interstitial cells of the testes produce
A)seminal fluid.
B)spermatogenic cells.
C)sperm cells.
D)androgens.
A)seminal fluid.
B)spermatogenic cells.
C)sperm cells.
D)androgens.
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34
The egg, or ovum, is more correctly called
A)a primary oocyte.
B)a secondary oocyte.
C)an oogonium.
D)a zygote.
A)a primary oocyte.
B)a secondary oocyte.
C)an oogonium.
D)a zygote.
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35
Which of the following correctly describes an erection?
A)Smooth muscles of vascular spaces in the penis contract.
B)Parasympathetic impulses constrict arteries leading to the penis.
C)Parasympathetic neurons release nitric oxide causing dilation of small arteries in the penis.
D)The spongy tissue in the penis fills with air.
A)Smooth muscles of vascular spaces in the penis contract.
B)Parasympathetic impulses constrict arteries leading to the penis.
C)Parasympathetic neurons release nitric oxide causing dilation of small arteries in the penis.
D)The spongy tissue in the penis fills with air.
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36
The structure of a testis can be described as composed of
A)about 250 lobules, each of which contains 1 to 4 seminiferous tubules.
B)1 to 4 lobules, each of which contains about 250 seminiferous tubules.
C)semen in various stages of development held in seminiferous tubules.
D)a single very long seminiferous tubule that winds through the structure.
A)about 250 lobules, each of which contains 1 to 4 seminiferous tubules.
B)1 to 4 lobules, each of which contains about 250 seminiferous tubules.
C)semen in various stages of development held in seminiferous tubules.
D)a single very long seminiferous tubule that winds through the structure.
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37
The epididymis, coiled on the outer surface of the testis, becomes the
A)penile urethra.
B)rete testis.
C)tunica albuginea.
D)ductus deferens.
A)penile urethra.
B)rete testis.
C)tunica albuginea.
D)ductus deferens.
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38
Which of the following is not a male secondary sex characteristic?
A)Thickening of the bones
B)Increased muscular growth
C)Increased growth of body hair
D)Deposition of adipose tissue in the thighs and buttock
A)Thickening of the bones
B)Increased muscular growth
C)Increased growth of body hair
D)Deposition of adipose tissue in the thighs and buttock
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39
The average length of the epididymis is
A)1 meter.
B)3 meters.
C)6 meters.
D)9 meters.
A)1 meter.
B)3 meters.
C)6 meters.
D)9 meters.
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40
The structure the sperm enters upon exiting the ductus deferens is the
A)seminal vesicles.
B)epididymis.
C)ejaculatory duct.
D)rete testis.
A)seminal vesicles.
B)epididymis.
C)ejaculatory duct.
D)rete testis.
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41
A relatively new theory has arisen regarding the development of twins at fertilization. In addition to the phenomena of identical and fraternal twins, the theory suggests that semi-identical twins called polar body twins can occur if fertilization occurs in the second polar body immediately after fertilization of the oocyte (different sperm fertilizing each). If this is true, what should be true about the zygotes?
A)One twin will be physically smaller than the other after birth and later in life.
B)At least one of the twins will have a genetic abnormality due to the nature of the division that produces the secondary oocyte and polar body.
C)The twins will possess exactly the same genetic material.
D)The twins will have the exact same maternal genes, but their paternal genes will vary.
A)One twin will be physically smaller than the other after birth and later in life.
B)At least one of the twins will have a genetic abnormality due to the nature of the division that produces the secondary oocyte and polar body.
C)The twins will possess exactly the same genetic material.
D)The twins will have the exact same maternal genes, but their paternal genes will vary.
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42
About the time of ovulation, the anterior pituitary gland releases a surge of
A)estrogens.
B)progesterone.
C)LH.
D)androgens.
A)estrogens.
B)progesterone.
C)LH.
D)androgens.
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43
The inner mucosal layer of the uterine wall is the
A)endometrium.
B)myometrium.
C)perimetrium.
D)epimetrium.
A)endometrium.
B)myometrium.
C)perimetrium.
D)epimetrium.
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44
A mammary gland contains ________ lobes.
A)paired
B)three
C)ten
D)fifteen to twenty
A)paired
B)three
C)ten
D)fifteen to twenty
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45
Fertilization normally occurs in the
A)peritoneal cavity.
B)uterine tube.
C)uterus.
D)vagina.
A)peritoneal cavity.
B)uterine tube.
C)uterus.
D)vagina.
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46
Which of the following terms is/are correctly defined?
A)Ovulation-rupture of an ovarian follicle and release of a secondary oocyte and first polar body
B)Vestibule-space enclosed by the labia minora
C)Orgasm-pleasurable sense of physiological and psychological release
D)Seminiferous tubule-a tube starting after the epididymis which connects the testicle to the ampulla and seminal vesicle
A)Ovulation-rupture of an ovarian follicle and release of a secondary oocyte and first polar body
B)Vestibule-space enclosed by the labia minora
C)Orgasm-pleasurable sense of physiological and psychological release
D)Seminiferous tubule-a tube starting after the epididymis which connects the testicle to the ampulla and seminal vesicle
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47
The female structure that corresponds to the male penis is the
A)vagina.
B)clitoris.
C)vestibule.
D)labia minora.
A)vagina.
B)clitoris.
C)vestibule.
D)labia minora.
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48
A woman going through menopause may take ________ to minimize the symptoms.
A)gonadotropin-releasing hormone
B)hormone replacement therapy
C)follicle-stimulating hormone
D)progesterone-releasing hormone
A)gonadotropin-releasing hormone
B)hormone replacement therapy
C)follicle-stimulating hormone
D)progesterone-releasing hormone
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49
The first step in oogenesis is when a
A)secondary oocyte divides to form a polar body and an egg cell.
B)primary oocyte divides to form a secondary oocyte and a first polar body.
C)follicle becomes a corpus luteum.
D)corpus luteum becomes a corpus albicans.
A)secondary oocyte divides to form a polar body and an egg cell.
B)primary oocyte divides to form a secondary oocyte and a first polar body.
C)follicle becomes a corpus luteum.
D)corpus luteum becomes a corpus albicans.
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50
Lulu is 53 and has not had her menstrual period in a year. Several times a day, she feels a tingling in her upper chest, and then heat washes over her, in an upward direction. It is intensely uncomfortable for about 5 minutes, during which she is nearly overwhelmed with an urge to fling off her clothing. The cause of Lulu's hot flashes is
A)an increase in gonadotropin concentration and a decrease in estrogen concentration.
B)an increase in gonadotropin concentration and an increase in estrogen concentration.
C)a decrease in gonadotropin concentration and an increase in estrogen concentration.
D)a decrease in gonadotropin concentration and a decrease in estrogen concentration.
A)an increase in gonadotropin concentration and a decrease in estrogen concentration.
B)an increase in gonadotropin concentration and an increase in estrogen concentration.
C)a decrease in gonadotropin concentration and an increase in estrogen concentration.
D)a decrease in gonadotropin concentration and a decrease in estrogen concentration.
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51
A mutation affecting the cytoplasmic distribution among dividing daughter cells in female meiosis prevents the normal distribution between the secondary oocyte and the polar body. Instead, two identically sized daughter cells with the same amount of cytoplasm are produced after each division while polar bodies are still designated and disintegrated. Knowing the main function of the polar body, what effect might this mutation have?
A)Sperm will not be able to penetrate the egg.
B)Oocytes with abnormal chromosome numbers will result and produce zygotes with further abnormal numbers.
C)After fertilization, the zygote may not have enough organelles and nutrients to support further cell divisions.
D)Embryos developed from the mutated secondary oocyte will lack the X chromosome.
A)Sperm will not be able to penetrate the egg.
B)Oocytes with abnormal chromosome numbers will result and produce zygotes with further abnormal numbers.
C)After fertilization, the zygote may not have enough organelles and nutrients to support further cell divisions.
D)Embryos developed from the mutated secondary oocyte will lack the X chromosome.
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52
In females, which structure is immediately anterior to the vagina?
A)Uterus
B)Urethra
C)Rectum
D)Pubis symphysis
A)Uterus
B)Urethra
C)Rectum
D)Pubis symphysis
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53
Menopause is due to aging of the
A)ovaries.
B)vagina.
C)cervix.
D)uterine tube.
A)ovaries.
B)vagina.
C)cervix.
D)uterine tube.
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54
Compared to males who train for endurance events, females who train for such events typically
A)maintain a lower percentage of body fat.
B)maintain a higher percentage of body fat.
C)develop a higher percentage of muscle tissue because of testosterone.
D)develop a higher percentage of muscle tissue because of estrogen.
A)maintain a lower percentage of body fat.
B)maintain a higher percentage of body fat.
C)develop a higher percentage of muscle tissue because of testosterone.
D)develop a higher percentage of muscle tissue because of estrogen.
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55
The dimensions of a uterine tube are
A)5 centimeters in diameter and about 20 centimeters long.
B)2 centimeters in diameter and about 30 centimeters long.
C)10 centimeters in diameter and about 40 centimeters long.
D)0)7 centimeters in diameter and about 10 centimeters long.
A)5 centimeters in diameter and about 20 centimeters long.
B)2 centimeters in diameter and about 30 centimeters long.
C)10 centimeters in diameter and about 40 centimeters long.
D)0)7 centimeters in diameter and about 10 centimeters long.
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56
Judy runs 50 miles a week. She and her husband have been trying to conceive for three years, with no luck. Her disturbed reproductive cycles and infertility are due to
A)increased secretion of adrenal androgens.
B)decreased secretion of adrenal androgens.
C)increased synthesis of estrogens.
D)decreased synthesis of estrogens.
A)increased secretion of adrenal androgens.
B)decreased secretion of adrenal androgens.
C)increased synthesis of estrogens.
D)decreased synthesis of estrogens.
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57
Signs of menopause include
A)increased concentrations of estrogens.
B)inexplicable euphoria, extra energy, weight loss.
C)shrinking of the vagina, uterus, and breasts.
D)increased bone matrix.
A)increased concentrations of estrogens.
B)inexplicable euphoria, extra energy, weight loss.
C)shrinking of the vagina, uterus, and breasts.
D)increased bone matrix.
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58
The zona pellucida consists of
A)glycoprotein.
B)adipose tissue.
C)epithelium.
D)nucleic acid.
A)glycoprotein.
B)adipose tissue.
C)epithelium.
D)nucleic acid.
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59
The hormone(s)mainly responsible for the development and maintenance of female secondary sexual characteristics is
A)estrogens.
B)progesterone.
C)androgens.
D)luteinizing hormone.
A)estrogens.
B)progesterone.
C)androgens.
D)luteinizing hormone.
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60
In the reproductive cycle, estrogen ________, whereas progesterone ________.
A)stimulates erection of the clitoris; stimulates the uterine lining to become glandular
B)ejects milk from the mammary glands; stimulates milk secretion
C)stimulates uterine wall development; stimulates the uterine lining to become more glandular
D)inhibits the release of FSH; stimulates the release of FSH
A)stimulates erection of the clitoris; stimulates the uterine lining to become glandular
B)ejects milk from the mammary glands; stimulates milk secretion
C)stimulates uterine wall development; stimulates the uterine lining to become more glandular
D)inhibits the release of FSH; stimulates the release of FSH
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61
Which of the following is a chemical barrier type contraceptive?
A)Coitus interruptus
B)Spermicidal cream
C)Intrauterine device
D)Diaphragm
A)Coitus interruptus
B)Spermicidal cream
C)Intrauterine device
D)Diaphragm
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62
Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is a disorder in which a female produces abnormally high levels of androgens (particularly testosterone). This has various adverse effects on the female body, including inhibition of ovulation. Which hypothalamic or pituitary form of hormonal control could cause abnormal production of androgens in females?
A)Nonsecretion of GnRH
B)Hyposecretion of FSH
C)Hypersecretion of FSH
D)Hypersecretion of LH
A)Nonsecretion of GnRH
B)Hyposecretion of FSH
C)Hypersecretion of FSH
D)Hypersecretion of LH
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63
In endometriosis,
A)tissue resembling the inner uterine lining grows in the thoracic cavity.
B)tissue resembling the inner uterine lining grows in the abdominal cavity.
C)the inner uterine lining tissue no longer grows during the woman's reproductive cycles.
D)a new mother becomes extremely depressed.
A)tissue resembling the inner uterine lining grows in the thoracic cavity.
B)tissue resembling the inner uterine lining grows in the abdominal cavity.
C)the inner uterine lining tissue no longer grows during the woman's reproductive cycles.
D)a new mother becomes extremely depressed.
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64
A female patient develops genital warts after recent sexual contact. What pathogen has she been exposed to? What complication can this pathogen produce if the infection advances?
A)Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV); Acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDs)
B)Chlamydia trachomatis bacteria; Pelvic inflammatory disease
C)Human papilloma virus (HPV); Risk of cervical cancer
D)Neisseria gonorrhoeae bacteria; Arthritis
A)Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV); Acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDs)
B)Chlamydia trachomatis bacteria; Pelvic inflammatory disease
C)Human papilloma virus (HPV); Risk of cervical cancer
D)Neisseria gonorrhoeae bacteria; Arthritis
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65
"You can't possibly have breast cancer," said Jim to his roommate Eliot, who was distraught after a visit to a doctor. "You're a man!" "No, Jim. A certain percentage of breast cancer cases are in men." That percentage is
A)0)5.
B)0)75.
C)1)0.
D)10.
A)0)5.
B)0)75.
C)1)0.
D)10.
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66
A patient comes into the emergency room with a high fever. Blood testing reveals that their immune system is severely weakened, making them prone to infections. The patient also reports chronic weakness/fatigue. After discussing their problems with a doctor, they admit that they are a drug user and sometimes use dirty needles. Which of the following STIs is the patient suffering from?
A)Gonorrhea
B)AIDs
C)Chlamydia
D)Syphilis
A)Gonorrhea
B)AIDs
C)Chlamydia
D)Syphilis
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67
The most commonly used oral contraceptives contain
A)synthetic estrogens and progesterone.
B)synthetic androgens.
C)gonadotropins.
D)FSH and LH.
A)synthetic estrogens and progesterone.
B)synthetic androgens.
C)gonadotropins.
D)FSH and LH.
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68
The cells that result from meiosis are diploid.
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69
Tamoxifen and raloxifene act by
A)blocking estrogen receptors.
B)activating progesterone receptors.
C)breaking up cancer cell DNA.
D)depriving cancer cell of growth factors.
A)blocking estrogen receptors.
B)activating progesterone receptors.
C)breaking up cancer cell DNA.
D)depriving cancer cell of growth factors.
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70
The glands in a lobe of a breast
A)drain into alveolar ducts, which drain into a lactiferous duct that leads to the nipple.
B)lead directly to a nipple.
C)drain into a lactiferous duct which drains into an alveolar duct that leads to the nipple.
D)are separated by muscle tissue.
A)drain into alveolar ducts, which drain into a lactiferous duct that leads to the nipple.
B)lead directly to a nipple.
C)drain into a lactiferous duct which drains into an alveolar duct that leads to the nipple.
D)are separated by muscle tissue.
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71
A hysterosalpinogram measures or shows
A)the intensity of a woman's orgasm.
B)the number of uterine tubes.
C)whether or not a uterine tube is open.
D)whether there is anything growing in the uterus.
A)the intensity of a woman's orgasm.
B)the number of uterine tubes.
C)whether or not a uterine tube is open.
D)whether there is anything growing in the uterus.
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72
A cause of female infertility is failure of ovulation due to hyposecretion of hormones from the
A)anterior pituitary gland.
B)posterior pituitary gland.
C)adrenal gland.
D)ovary.
A)anterior pituitary gland.
B)posterior pituitary gland.
C)adrenal gland.
D)ovary.
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73
Which of the following provides mechanical contraception?
A)The rhythm method
B)The minipill
C)Combined hormone contraceptives
D)A diaphragm
A)The rhythm method
B)The minipill
C)Combined hormone contraceptives
D)A diaphragm
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74
The prostate gland is the size and shape of a(n)
A)horseshoe.
B)pea.
C)walnut or chestnut.
D)apple.
A)horseshoe.
B)pea.
C)walnut or chestnut.
D)apple.
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75
Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is a disorder in which a female produces abnormally high levels of androgens (particularly testosterone), which have various adverse effects on the female body. Which of the following describes a symptom that would be caused by high blood androgens level in a female?
A)Excessive breast development (gynecomastia)
B)Rapid, excessive ovulation
C)Abnormal growth of hair on the face and back
D)Thickened endometrium
A)Excessive breast development (gynecomastia)
B)Rapid, excessive ovulation
C)Abnormal growth of hair on the face and back
D)Thickened endometrium
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76
Chromosomes align down the center of a cell undergoing meiosis in metaphase.
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77
Oral contraceptives may cause
A)pregnancy, as they have a high (21 in 100 women)rate of failure.
B)breast tenderness.
C)intrauterine damage.
D)loss of bone density.
A)pregnancy, as they have a high (21 in 100 women)rate of failure.
B)breast tenderness.
C)intrauterine damage.
D)loss of bone density.
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78
A male patient comes into the clinic with his female partner. He complains of a painful burning sensation while urinating. He suspects an STI, but his partner has no symptoms to speak of. Which of the following STIs does he most likely have?
A)Gonorrhea
B)AIDs
C)Chlamydia
D)Syphilis
A)Gonorrhea
B)AIDs
C)Chlamydia
D)Syphilis
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79
A new, non-surgical alternative to vasectomy called Vasalgel is done by injecting an impassable gel into the ductus deferentia. What contraceptive effect will this have?
A)The prostate gland will be blocked from secreting nutrients for sperm into the ductus deferentia.
B)Ciliated columnar cells will be blocked from secreting sperm-fueling glycogen.
C)Sperm will be blocked from traveling from the testis to the urethra.
D)The vasectomy causes secretions that interrupt testosterone secretion from interstitial cells.
A)The prostate gland will be blocked from secreting nutrients for sperm into the ductus deferentia.
B)Ciliated columnar cells will be blocked from secreting sperm-fueling glycogen.
C)Sperm will be blocked from traveling from the testis to the urethra.
D)The vasectomy causes secretions that interrupt testosterone secretion from interstitial cells.
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80
Undescended testes cause infertility because
A)sperm development is impeded by the higher internal body temperature.
B)there is too little testosterone.
C)they undergo apoptosis, and can no longer produce sperm.
D)they become entangled in the seminiferous tubules, which then degenerate.
A)sperm development is impeded by the higher internal body temperature.
B)there is too little testosterone.
C)they undergo apoptosis, and can no longer produce sperm.
D)they become entangled in the seminiferous tubules, which then degenerate.
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