Deck 17: Immune Disorders, Tools, and Vaccines

Question 1

All of the following are true about B-cell neoplasms EXCEPT

A) cancers arise in B cells when genes that control cell division are dysregulated and fail to replicate.
B) follicular lymphoma occurs when the bcl-2 gene is activated and prevents apoptosis.
C) chronic lymphocytic leukemia occurs when there is a deletion in chromosome 13.
D) Burkitt's lymphoma develops when the c-myo gene moves next to expressed antibody genes.

Answer 1

A

Question 2

Which of the following blood transfusions would be compatible?

A)
B)
C)
D)

Answer 2

D

Question 3

Leukemia refers to

A) a malignant lymphoid cell found in circulation or bone marrow.
B) a solid mass in a lymphoid organ.
C) growth of a plasma cell.
D) cancerous plasma cells that appear at multiple sites.

Answer 3

A

Question 4

Patients with primary immunodeficiencies and who are immunosuppressed are prone to developing cancers.Which is the most commonly developed cancer for these patients?

A) Epstein-Barr
B) B-cell lymphomas
C) myelomas
D) mononucleosis

Question 5

How does immune surveillance work inside the host?

A) Cancer cells are sought out but not destroyed.
B) The immune system is suppressed.
C) Immune cells are unable to recognize cancerous cells.
D) Cancer cells are marked with surface antigens not present on normal cells.

Question 6

Anaphylaxis is the term for reactions caused when certain antigens combine with

A) IgE antibodies.
B) macrophages.
C) IgG antibodies.
D) histamine.

Question 7

All of the following are examples of antibody-mediated hypersensitivities EXCEPT ________ hypersensitivity.

A) IgE-mediated
B) antibody-mediated cytotoxic
C) immune complex-mediated
D) cell-mediated

Question 8

All of the following are examples of B-cell disorders EXCEPT

A) X-linked agammaglobulinemia (Burton's disease).
B) common variable immunodeficiency (CVID).
C) DiGeorge syndrome.
D) selective IgA deficiency.

Question 9

Which of the following is a symptom of systemic anaphylaxis?

A) sneezing
B) watery, itchy eyes
C) rhinitis
D) edema

Question 10

What is the end result of the reaction in the immune complex reaction demonstrated in the figure below?

A) IgG is directed against cell membrane antigens.
B) Complement is activated.
C) Neutrophils are attracted and release enzymes.
D) Endothelial cells are damaged.

Question 11

Symptoms of an immune complex reaction are due to

A) destruction of the antigen.
B) complement activation.
C) phagocytosis.
D) cytokines.

Question 12

An autoimmune response is generated within the host when

A) immune tolerance against self is lost.
B) immune cells attack foreign antigens.
C) NK cells bind host tissue.
D) T cells deactivate self-reacting B cells.

Question 13

Allergic contact dermatitis is due to

A) sensitized T cells.
B) IgE antibodies.
C) IgG antibodies.
D) IgM antibodies.

Question 14

All of the following are consequences of bare lymphocyte syndrome (MHC II deficiency)EXCEPT

A) the MHC II molecule is expressed on APCs.
B) T cells will not form into TH₁, TH₂ , or other types of helper T cells.
C) cytotoxic T cells cannot be activated.
D) B cells do not isotype switch.

Question 15

Which of the following is true regarding T-cell deficiencies?

A) A mutation in the IL-2 receptor affects T-cell proliferation.
B) A deficiency in ATP causes apoptosis in T, B, or NK cells.
C) Immunoglobulin protection is permanent.
D) Severe combined immunodeficiencies (SCIDs) are characterized by a lack of B cells.

Question 16

Complement deficiencies are

A) acquired during life.
B) X-linked.
C) inherited autosomal traits.
D) treated with antivirals.

Question 17

An example of a primary immunodeficiency would be

A) DiGeorge syndrome.
B) HIV.
C) severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome.
D) IgA deficiency.

Question 18

All of the following are true about Hodgkin's lymphoma EXCEPT that

A) it is often caused by the herpes simplex virus.
B) symptoms include fever, night sweats, and weight loss.
C) tumors contain neoplastic, multinucleated Reed-Sternberg cells.
D) the release of cytokines such as TNF-alpha contributes to the fever and chronic inflammation.

Question 19

Type II hypersensitivities differ from type III sensitivities in that only type II involves

A) surface antigens.
B) soluble antigens.
C) antibodies.
D) histamine.

Question 20

Epinephrine is used to reverse anaphylaxis.This is achieved by all of the following EXCEPT

A) stimulating adenylate cyclase activity.
B) decreasing cAMP levels.
C) relaxing smooth muscle.
D) preventing degranulation of the mast cell.

Question 21

The following are all true about herd immunity EXCEPT that it

A) only works for diseases that are contagious.
B) occurs when a large portion of a population is immunized.
C) is possible for non-contagious infections like tetanus.
D) protects unimmunized individuals.

Question 22

Which of the following is a test to determine a patient's blood type by mixing the patient's red blood cells with antibodies?

A) agglutination reaction
B) immunoprecipitation
C) enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
D) immunofluorescence

Question 23

What type of vaccine is the live,weakened measles virus?

A) conjugated
B) subunit
C) DNA
D) attenuated whole-agent

Question 24

A hybridoma results from the fusion of a(n)

A) B cell with a T cell.
B) B cell with a myeloma cell.
C) antigen with an antibody.
D) antigen with a B cell.

Question 25

Which of the following does NOT use fluorescent-labeled antibodies?

A) agglutination
B) western blot
C) immunofluorescence microscopy
D) flow cytometry

Question 26

All of the following regarding immunoprecipitation are correct EXCEPT

A) it is observed both in vitro and in vivo.
B) too many antigens cause the test not to work.
C) too many antibody molecules cause the test not to work.
D) equivalence is the point at which there are roughly the same number of antigenic and antigen-binding sites.

Question 27

Determine the FALSE statement below.An effective vaccine

A) will deactivate B and T cells.
B) will generate memory.
C) should not require many boosters.
D) must protect against the natural pathogen.

Question 28

Which of the following is the major player in transplant rejection?

A) MHC proteins of the donor
B) T helper cells of the donor
C) MHC proteins of the host
D) T helper cells of the host

Question 29

Which item is from the patient in a direct ELISA test?

A) antigen
B) substrate for the enzyme
C) antibodies against the antigen
D) antihuman immune serum

Question 30

Graves' disease and Hashimoto's disease are different in the fact that Graves' disease

A) targets the thyroid.
B) involves autoantibodies.
C) causes hyperthyroidism.
D) causes hypothyroidism.

Question 31

Sensitivity differs from specificity in that sensitivity

A) measures how selective an antibody is.
B) occurs when antibodies bind dissimilar antigens.
C) reflects how few antigen or antibody molecules a test can detect.
D) is not important when conducting a serological test.

Question 32

The image below is of a radial immunodiffusion assay embedded with anti-IgA antibodies.Which sample has the highest concentration of IgA antibodies?

A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D

Question 33

A plasmid-encoding protein antigen from West Nile virus is injected into muscle cells.This is an example of a(n)

A) DNA vaccine.
B) attenuated vaccine.
C) subunit vaccine.
D) toxoid.

Question 34

All of the following are examples of autoimmune diseases EXCEPT

A) lupus.
B) Lyme disease.
C) Graves' disease.
D) type-1 diabetes.

Question 35

All of the following are true of the generation of autoreactive antibodies EXCEPT

A) B cells escape the negative selection process.
B) self-reacting B cells can be activated without specific T-cell assistance.
C) some microbial antigens can also trigger autoimmune reactions.
D) self-reacting B cells do not take up and process self-antigens.

Question 36

All of the following pertain to serology EXCEPT that they

A) can detect antibodies.
B) cannot detect antigens.
C) can be used to diagnose various diseases.
D) can reveal the contents of serum.

Question 37

All of the following are examples of passive immunization EXCEPT

A) injection of immune globulin.
B) breast-feeding.
C) antitoxins.
D) vaccinia virus.

Question 38

Refer to the image below.Which component came from the patient in this sandwich ELISA?

A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D

Question 39

The figure below illustrates a sandwich ELISA.What is happening in step 3?

A) Enzyme-linked detection antibody is added.
B) Secondary antibody is added and binds to antigens.
C) The plate is coated with capture antibodies.
D) Serum sample is added.

Question 40

All of the following are generally used in vaccines EXCEPT

A) toxoids.
B) parts of bacterial cells.
C) antibodies.
D) inactivated viruses.

Question 41

Using the figure below,please describe the steps taken to produce monoclonal antibodies and explain why they are used in diagnostic tests and disease treatments.

Question 42

Describe an ELISA test to detect the presence of hepatitis in a patient's blood sample.

Question 43

CASE HISTORY
Richard,who is blood group B,was undergoing surgery after a car accident and accidentally received a transfusion with type A blood.Within hours,Richard experienced chills and lowered blood pressure.His urine turned red with blood.All these symptoms indicate an ABO blood group incompatibility.
Is there an identifiable allergen present in this case study? How can you tell?

Question 44

Using the figure below,please describe in detail how this type IV sensitivity is produced and how tissue is ultimately damaged.

Question 45

CASE HISTORY
The patient,Asuncion,is an eight-year-old girl from Argentina.She received the BCG vaccine for tuberculosis about one year before coming to the United States.Upon entering school in the United States,she must take a skin test for tuberculosis (TB).Asuncion tries to refuse but is told it is a requirement.She allows the nurse to apply the test to her arm.Three days later,the test site has a large red lesion and the skin is starting to slough (peel off).
The reaction Asuncion is experiencing is most similar to someone who has

A) been exposed to poison ivy and now has contact dermatitis.
B) type A blood, but has been given a type B transfusion.
C) an urticarial rash in response to penicillin treatment.
D) an allergic reaction to bee venom injected during a sting.

Question 46

CASE HISTORY
The patient,Asuncion,is an eight-year-old girl from Argentina.She received the BCG vaccine for tuberculosis about one year before coming to the United States.Upon entering school in the United States,she must take a skin test for tuberculosis (TB).Asuncion tries to refuse but is told it is a requirement.She allows the nurse to apply the test to her arm.Three days later,the test site has a large red lesion and the skin is starting to slough (peel off).
From the information given in the case study,we cannot tell whether Asuncion could potentially pose a TB infection risk to her classmates.Why was this test an inappropriate one for Asuncion and what would be a more useful alternative?

Question 47

Patients with ________ have normal or elevated serum IgM levels but low levels of other antibodies.

Question 48

Using the figure below,describe what is happening in each figure.Explain the concept of herd immunity and how it protects the unvaccinated population.

Question 49

In the immune complex reaction shown in the figure below,the structure labeled as "B" is called a(n)________.

Question 50

Draw and label the key mediators of a type 1 hypersensitivity.Be sure to indicate where medical intervention can take place.

Question 51

Injecting an antigen such as a weakened or killed pathogen is called ________ immunization,while ________ immunization is a type of immunotherapy.

Question 52

Antigens that possess structures similar in shape to host structures are called ________.

Question 53

The process that detects and eliminates cancer cells as they arise is called a(n)________.