Deck 10: Employee Separation and Retention

Question 1

A frame of reference is a standard point that serves as a comparison for other points and thus provides meaning.

Answer 1

True
Explanation: A frame of reference is a standard point that serves as a comparison for other points and thus provides meaning. Often the most salient frame of reference for job satisfaction is the person's current level of satisfaction and changes in the direction of job satisfaction predict turnover over and above the absolute level of turnover itself.

Question 2

If job conditions cannot be changed, a dissatisfied worker may opt for an internal transfer if the dissatisfaction is job-specific.

Answer 2

True
Explanation: If the job conditions cannot be changed, a dissatisfied worker may be able to solve the problem by leaving the job. This could take the form of an internal transfer if the dissatisfaction is job-specific (the result of an unfair supervisor or unpleasant working conditions).

Question 3

Due to negative affectivity, if job satisfaction remains relatively stable across time and jobs, transient changes in job satisfaction will be difficult to sustain in the individuals.

Answer 3

True
Explanation: The evidence on the linkage between the kinds of traits and job satisfaction suggests the importance of personnel selection as a way of raising overall levels of employee satisfaction. If job satisfaction remains relatively stable across time and jobs because of characteristics like negative affectivity, this suggests that transient changes in job satisfaction will be difficult to sustain in these individuals, who will typically revert to their "dispositional" or adaptation level over time.

Question 4

There is a general consensus among most theories of employee satisfaction that withdrawal behaviors are unrelated to one another.

Question 5

Outplacement counseling tries to help dismissed employees manage the transition from one job to another.

Question 6

The perception and reaction of an organization's own employees to working conditions has implications for competitive advantage.

Question 7

Whistle-blowers avoid taking issues to external constituencies and try to resolve them internally.

Question 8

The key driving force behind all the different forms of job withdrawal is job satisfaction.

Question 9

The theory of progression of withdrawal states that dissatisfied individuals spontaneously enact a set of behaviors all at once to avoid their work situation.

Question 10

One of the major interventions aimed at reducing job dissatisfaction by increasing job complexity is job enrichment.

Question 11

The evidence on the linkage between negative affectivity and job satisfaction suggests the importance of personnel selection as a way of raising overall levels of employee satisfaction.

Question 12

Though voluntary turnover is good for the overall economy, it is often very costly for individual employers.

Question 13

When properly channeled by a secure and supportive leader, "voicing opportunities" for lower level employees can prevent turnover among highly engaged employees.

Question 14

Generally, the first stage in an alternative dispute resolution system is peer review.

Question 15

Whereas employee wellness programs deal with employees who have developed problems at work because of health-related issues, employee assistance programs (EAPs)take a proactive and preemptive focus on trying to prevent health-related problems in the first place.

Question 16

Organizational commitment is the degree to which employees identify themselves with their jobs.

Question 17

Wrongful discharge suits can be filed as a civil rights infringement if the person discharged is a member of a protected group.

Question 18

Procedural justice is the concept of justice referring to the interpersonal nature of how the outcomes were implemented.

Question 19

With a few exceptions, there is a strong positive relationship between task complexity and job satisfaction.

Question 20

Negative affectivity describes a dispositional dimension that reflects pervasive individual similarities in dissatisfaction with any and all aspects of life.

Question 21

Which of the following acts would be considered grounds for a wrongful discharge suit involving a violation of public policy?

A)Allen is terminated because he does something illegal.
B)Pete is terminated because he does something unethical.
C)Alice is refused employment because she has a criminal record.
D)Rhea is terminated because she refuses to do something unsafe.
E)Geller is refused employment on account of lack of credentials.

Question 22

Organizations that introduce _____ systems where low performers are systematically identified and, where necessary, eliminated from payrolls often experience quick improvement gains.

A)forced distributions rating
B)voluntary distribution rating
C)self-rating
D)peer-rating
E)micromanagement

Question 23

Providing increased opportunities for workers to have input into important organizational decisions that involve their work increases role conflict and ambiguity.

Question 24

With respect to employee termination, a _____ suit typically attempts to establish that the termination either violated an implied covenant or violated public policy.

A)discrimination
B)forgery
C)encroachment
D)unethical practice
E)wrongful discharge

Question 25

_____ focuses specifically on the methods used to determine the outcomes received.

A)Outcome justice
B)Interactional justice
C)Procedural justice
D)Result justice
E)Input justice

Question 26

_____ deals with how a decision was made.

A)Outcome justice
B)Interactional justice
C)Procedural justice
D)Result justice
E)Input justice

Question 27

Which of the following is true of voluntary turnover?

A)It is initiated by the employee.
B)It involves employees an organization would like to discharge.
C)It could give rise to more legal consequences than involuntary turnover.
D)It usually is a result of a violation of a company rule or misconduct.
E)It is the last stage in progressive discipline.

Question 28

Which of the following groups is most likely to file a suit based on reverse discrimination claims?

A)Racial minorities
B)Homosexuals
C)Older workers
D)Women
E)Caucasians

Question 29

Brian, a Hispanic employee, is a constant low performer. Mark, his boss, is frustrated and is unable to discharge him due to HR policies. As a consequence, Mark gives Brian low-level work assignments as well as subjects him to other forms of undesirable treatment. If Brian leaves the organization, the mentioned actions can expose Mark to a possible ____.

A)retaliation lawsuit
B)forgery lawsuit
C)reverse discrimination suit
D)public policy violation lawsuit
E)civil infringement lawsuit

Question 30

A systematic survey program allows a company to check for differences between units and hence benchmark "best practices" that might be generalized across units.

Question 31

A company decides to let go of some employees due to a financial crisis. Jane loses her job, while her colleagues with similar performance ratings and productivity retain their jobs. Jane's judgment of her loss when compared to her colleagues' is a perception of _____.

A)structural unfairness
B)process unfairness
C)procedural unfairness
D)outcome unfairness
E)task unfairness

Question 32

Group cohesiveness and support for individual members decrease through exposure and joint efforts found in team-building activities.

Question 33

The two primary sets of people in the organization who affect an individual's job satisfaction are his or her subordinates and co-workers.

Question 34

Which of the following is true of involuntary turnover?

A)It is initiated by the employee.
B)It involves people an organization would like to retain.
C)It may involve legal aspects that can have repercussions for the organization.
D)It usually involves high performers.
E)It includes employees who quit a job at will to pursue a change in career.

Question 35

Exit interviews with departing workers can be a valuable tool for uncovering systematic concerns that are driving retention problems.

Question 36

A wrongful discharge suit can be filed as a _____ when the person discharged is a member of a protected group.

A)violation of an implied contract
B)covenant
C)violation of a public policy
D)civil rights infringement
E)violation of employment-at-will

Question 37

_____ justice refers to the interpersonal nature of how the outcomes were implemented.

A)Outcome
B)Interactional
C)Procedural
D)Result
E)Functional

Question 38

_____ refers to the judgment that people make with respect to the results received relative to the results received by other people with whom they identify (referent others).

A)Structural fairness
B)Outcome fairness
C)Procedural fairness
D)Process fairness
E)Task fairness

Question 39

The employment-at-will doctrine:

A)has become more influential in recent years.
B)has more legal consequences in voluntary turnover than in involuntary turnover.
C)implies that a person may leave an organization at will despite an existing contract.
D)allows employers to discharge people at will without sufficient reasons for the discharge.
E)states that in the absence of a specific contract, either party could sever the employment.

Question 40

Julie's boss, Ben, believes that women are not capable of making top-level decisions. Julie's decisions are often sidelined by those of Ben's. When Julie confronts Ben, he terminates her employment. Which of the following is the most appropriate suit that will help Julie?

A)A retaliation lawsuit
B)A forgery lawsuit
C)A reverse discrimination suit
D)A public policy violation lawsuit
E)A civil infringement lawsuit

Question 41

Organizational programs that attempt to ameliorate problems encountered by workers who are drug dependent, alcoholic, or psychologically troubled are referred to as _____ programs.

A)employee assistance
B)alternative dispute resolution
C)health benefits
D)health insurance
E)aided workers'

Question 42

During the _____ stage of alternative dispute resolution, a panel composed of representatives from the organization that are at the same level of those people in the dispute hears the case and attempts to help the parties arrive at a settlement.

A)peer review
B)arbitration
C)open-door policy
D)mediation
E)legal support

Question 43

Which of the following determinants of procedural justice requires that procedures are applied by someone who has no prior prejudices regarding the individual involved in the discussion?

A)Representativeness
B)Correctability
C)Bias suppression
D)Accuracy
E)Consistency

Question 44

Consistency, bias suppression, information accuracy, correctability, representativeness, and ethicality are the six determinants of _____.

A)perceptual justice
B)interactional justice
C)procedural justice
D)outcome justice
E)income justice

Question 45

Which of the following is the first stage in an alternative dispute resolution?

A)Arbitration
B)Open-door policy
C)Peer review
D)Mediation
E)Legal support

Question 46

In an alternative dispute resolution method, the stage during which the two people involved in the conflict attempt to arrive at a settlement without any third parties involved is known as _____.

A)peer review
B)arbitration
C)open-door policy
D)mediation
E)legal support

Question 47

Explanation, consideration, social sensitivity, and empathy are key determinants of _____.

A)perceptual justice
B)interactional justice
C)procedural justice
D)outcome justice
E)task justice

Question 48

Which of the following is true of alternative dispute resolution (ADR)?

A)ADR relies on the legal system to resolve matters that cannot be handled internally.
B)Resolution through an ADR system is expensive as it involves high costs in terms of legal fee.
C)In ADR systems, there is a possibility of arbitrators, who wish to do more business, leaning in favor of those paying them.
D)ADR is more effective than employee assistance programs in dealing with issues related to drug or alcohol abuse.
E)ADR is designed to resolve issues internally and does not engage outsiders to enter the discussion.

Question 49

Which of the following happens in the mediation stage of an alternative dispute resolution?

A)The two people in conflict attempt to arrive at a settlement together.
B)A panel composed of representatives from the same level hears the case.
C)A neutral third party hears the case via a nonbinding process.
D)A professional arbitrator hears the case and resolves it unilaterally.
E)The judiciary system steps in to resolve the dispute based on the suit filed.

Question 50

What type of counseling helps displaced employees manage the transition from one job to another?

A)Outplacement
B)Transition
C)Relocation
D)Displacement
E)Transfer

Question 51

Which of the following determinants of procedural justice requires that the procedure is consistent with prevailing moral standards in terms of invasion of privacy or deception?

A)Bias suppression
B)Correctability
C)Representativeness
D)Ethicality
E)Consistency

Question 52

Which of the following determinants of procedural justice requires that the procedure is applied by a person who has no vested interest in the outcome?

A)Bias suppression
B)Correctability
C)Representativeness
D)Ethicality
E)Consistency

Question 53

Which of the following determinants of interactional justice requires emphasis on the different aspects of procedural fairness that justify the decision?

A)Social sensitivity
B)Explanation
C)Consideration
D)Empathy
E)Consistency

Question 54

Which of the following determinants of procedural justice requires that the procedure is informed by the concerns of all groups or stakeholders (co-workers, customers, owners)affected by the decision?

A)Bias suppression
B)Correctability
C)Representativeness
D)Ethicality
E)Consistency

Question 55

Which of the following statements is accurate about voluntary turnover?

A)It is initiated by the employer.
B)It involves employees an organization would like to discharge.
C)It typically involves legal aspects that have repercussions for the organization.
D)It gives the employee no choice in deciding his or her stay in the organization.
E)It can lead to the loss of highly valued employees to competitors.

Question 56

Which of the following steps in progressive discipline involves the right to go to arbitration?

A)Unofficial verbal warning
B)Official written warning
C)Temporary suspension
D)Threat of suspension
E)Termination

Question 57

Which of the following should be the first step to take as a progressive discipline measure?

A)Temporary suspension
B)Unofficial verbal warning
C)Last chance notification
D)Threat of suspension
E)Termination

Question 58

Which of the following determinants of procedural justice requires that the procedure has built-in safeguards that allow one to appeal mistakes or bad decisions?

A)Bias suppression
B)Correctability
C)Representativeness
D)Ethicality
E)Consistency

Question 59

In a typical progressive discipline program, which of the following should be the step taken before terminating an employee?

A)Unofficial verbal warning
B)Official written warning
C)Last chance notification
D)Threat of suspension
E)Right to go to arbitration

Question 60

Alternative dispute resolution is a method of resolving disputes that:

A)involves extensive legislation.
B)does not rely on the legal system.
C)excludes outside parties.
D)does not involve binding arbitration.
E)involves only the appealing party.

Question 61

Which of the following is the most important aspect of work in terms of generating satisfaction?

A)An employee's salary and the benefits that come along with the work he or she does
B)The degree to which work is meaningfully related to core values of the worker
C)The extrinsic rewards associated with the work and the organization
D)A positive work environment and social support
E)The non-monetary benefits received by the employee in terms of self esteem and goal satisfaction

Question 62

When it comes to complex jobs, the fact that the worst and best performers tend to leave more frequently than those at the average suggests a _____ relationship between past performance and future turnover.

A)horizontal
B)nonlinear
C)diagonal
D)circular
E)curvilinear

Question 63

Organizations that foster team building both on and off the job attempt to reduce dissatisfaction through _____.

A)behavior modification
B)a supportive environment
C)progressive discipline measures
D)third party negotiations
E)alternative dispute resolution

Question 64

_____ is a process of systematically moving a single individual from one job to another over the course of time.

A)Job involvement
B)Job enrichment
C)Job engagement
D)Job enlargement
E)Job rotation

Question 65

Mathew, a production manager, conducts an employee satisfaction survey. The survey reveals high levels of dissatisfaction among the employees in the packing unit who complain about repetitive tasks. In response to this, he adopts an intervention that explicitly focuses on reducing job dissatisfaction due to impoverished or boring tasks. This intervention is an example of _____.

A)job enrichment
B)team building
C)prosocial motivation
D)job rotation
E)work complication

Question 66

Which of the following is true of whistle-blowers?

A)They are satisfied employees.
B)They are capable of bringing about internal change.
C)They avoid taking their issue to external constituencies.
D)They avoid making the grievance public.
E)They resort to the government to address the grievance.

Question 67

Which of the following best describes job withdrawal?

A)It refers to employers discharging employees from jobs that are to be outsourced.
B)It is a set of behaviors that dissatisfied individuals enact to avoid the work situation.
C)It refers to retracting a job offer after initial confirmation.
D)It refers to voluntary turnover initiated by employees an organization would like to retain.
E)It involves a set of actions showcased by the company to discourage its employees from working.

Question 68

Reducing job dissatisfaction by increasing job complexity is _____.

A)job transfer
B)job rotation
C)job evaluation
D)job enlargement
E)job enrichment

Question 69

Which of the following is a disadvantage of a flexible work policy in an organization?

A)It fails to attract potential job applicants.
B)It causes reduction in organizational citizenship behaviors.
C)It increases absenteeism.
D)It results in lower levels of employee commitment to the organization.
E)It creates difficulties for managers in terms of scheduling work and reporting requirements.

Question 70

The degree to which people are energized to do their jobs because it helps other people is called _____.

A)job enrichment
B)team building
C)prosocial motivation
D)job rotation
E)work involvement

Question 71

Low job involvement and low organizational commitment are:

A)what drive employees who create organizational changes.
B)forms of psychological disengagement.
C)examples of physical job withdrawal.
D)examples of physiological job withdrawal.
E)forms of behavioral changes aimed to change policies.

Question 72

Negative affectivity is primarily influenced by:

A)availability of social support.
B)disposition of individuals.
C)organizational roles.
D)work environment.
E)pay and benefits.

Question 73

Lately, Laura has been performing low in her job. Although she is physically present at her workplace, her mind is constantly engaged with thoughts of a better job. Which of the following behaviors does Laura express?

A)Physical withdrawal
B)Psychological withdrawal
C)Internal change
D)Whistle-blowing
E)Behavioral change

Question 74

Which of the following suggests that dissatisfied individuals enact a set of behaviors in succession to avoid their work situation?

A)Efficiency wage theory
B)Equity theory
C)Progression of withdrawal theory
D)Two-factor theory
E)Motivation theory

Question 75

_____ is the degree to which people identify themselves with their jobs.

A)Job enlargement
B)Job enrichment
C)Job involvement
D)Job recognition
E)Job satisfaction

Question 76

_____ can be identified as a pleasurable feeling that results from the perception that one's job fulfills or allows the fulfillment of one's important job values.

A)Job enrichment
B)Job enlargement
C)Job commitment
D)Job involvement
E)Job satisfaction

Question 77

An employee who engages in absenteeism is displaying job dissatisfaction through _____.

A)behavioral change
B)psychological withdrawal
C)physical withdrawal
D)whistle-blowing
E)arbitration

Question 78

The degree to which an employee identifies with an organization and is willing to put forth effort on its behalf is called _____.

A)job satisfaction
B)organizational enlargement
C)organizational commitment
D)job engagement
E)job involvement

Question 79

The two primary sets of people in the organization who affect an individual's job satisfaction are:

A)subordinates and supervisors.
B)supervisors and customers.
C)co-workers and subordinates.
D)supervisors and co-workers.
E)subordinates and customers.

Question 80

Job satisfaction is a function of _____, which can be defined as what a person consciously or unconsciously desires to obtain.

A)perception
B)appreciation
C)contentment
D)appraisal
E)values