Deck 18: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems

Question 1

The white-footed mouse,deer,and deer ticks are important to maintaining the transmission cycle associated with

A)Lyme disease.
B)yellow fever.
C)Q fever.
D)Rocky Mountain spotted fever.
E)plague.

Answer 1

A

Question 2

Bubonic plague is transmitted by

A)mosquitos.
B)flies.
C)animal bites.
D)sexual contact.
E)fleas.

Answer 2

E

Question 3

All of the following are associated with subacute endocarditis except

A)occurs in patients that have prior heart damage.
B)caused by immune system autoantibodies that attack heart and valve tissue.
C)oral bacteria get introduced by dental procedures to the blood.
D)bacteria colonize previously damaged heart tissue resulting in a vegetation.
E)signs and symptoms include fever,heart murmur,and possible emboli.

Answer 3

B

Question 4

Rabbits and other rodents are the reservoirs of the causative agent of

A)tularemia.
B)anthrax.
C)malaria.
D)brucellosis.
E)mononucleosis.

Question 5

Yersinia pestis

A)was virulent in the Middle Ages but is no longer virulent.
B)has humans as an endemic reservoir.
C)does not respond to antimicrobial drugs.
D)is usually transmitted by a flea vector.
E)All of the choices are correct.

Question 6

Plague includes

A)septicemic form;called Black Death.
B)bubonic form;buboes develop.
C)pneumonic form;sputum highly contagious.
D)disease control;control of rodent population.
E)All of the choices are correct.

Question 7

Which is not associated with tularemia?

A)a zoonosis
B)mammals are the chief reservoir
C)a gram-positive bacterium
D)symptoms include fever,swollen lymph nodes,ulcerative lesions,conjunctivitis,and pneumonia
E)sometimes called rabbit fever

Question 8

Control of rodent populations is important for preventing

A)brucellosis.
B)plague.
C)malaria.
D)Q fever.
E)All of the choices are correct.

Question 9

All of the following are associated with bubonic plague except

A)transmitted by human feces.
B)caused by Yersinia pestis.
C)patient often has enlarged inguinal lymph nodes.
D)patient has fever,headache,nausea,and weakness.
E)can progress to a septicemia.

Question 10

Which of the following is not true of septicemia?

A)fever and shaking chills
B)respiratory acidosis
C)endotoxic shock
D)parenteral or endogenous transfer
E)drop in blood pressure

Question 11

Which is incorrect about Yersinia pestis?

A)exhibits bipolar staining
B)gram-negative rod
C)transmitted by fleas
D)has a capsule
E)produces enterotoxin

Question 12

The common causative agent of acute endocarditis is

A)Staphylococcus aureus.
B)Streptococcus pneumoniae.
C)Streptococcus pyogenes.
D)Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
E)All of the choices are correct.

Question 13

Acute endocarditis is most commonly contracted through

A)ingestion.
B)parenteral entry.
C)casual contact.
D)droplets.
E)fomites.

Question 14

The fibrous sac that encloses the heart is the

A)epicardium.
B)myocardium.
C)endocardium.
D)pericardium.
E)ectocardium.

Question 15

The causative agent of Lyme disease is

A)Ixodes scapularis.
B)Borrelia hermsii.
C)Borrelia burgdorferi.
D)Ixodes pacificus.
E)Leptospira interrogans.

Question 16

The presence of viruses in the blood is called

A)viremia.
B)fungemia.
C)hemovirus.
D)bacteremia.
E)septicemia.

Question 17

Erythema migrans,a bull's-eye rash,at the portal of entry is associated with

A)plague.
B)Rocky Mountain spotted fever.
C)Q fever.
D)Lyme disease.
E)yellow fever.

Question 18

Most cases of septicemia are caused by

A)fungi.
B)viruses.
C)prions.
D)bacteria.
E)protozoans.

Question 19

Lyme disease involves

A)early symptoms of fever,headache,and stiff neck.
B)crippling polyarthritis,and cardiovascular and neurological problems.
C)people having contact with ticks.
D)treatment with antimicrobials.
E)All of the choices are correct.

Question 20

______ occurs when bacteria flourish and grow in the bloodstream.

A)Viremia
B)Fungemia
C)Hemovirus
D)Bacteremia
E)Septicemia

Question 21

Which of the following requires direct contact with infected body fluids?

A)yellow fever
B)dengue fever
C)Q fever
D)Lassa fever
E)trench fever

Question 22

Yellow fever and dengue fever are

A)caused by arboviruses.
B)caused by viruses that disrupt capillaries and blood clotting.
C)zoonoses.
D)transmitted by a mosquito vector.
E)All of the choices are correct.

Question 23

Which of the following is not true of Ebola and Marburg?

A)caused by filoviruses
B)disruption of clotting factors
C)transmitted by direct contact with body fluids
D)transmitted by mosquitos
E)there is no treatment

Question 24

Pasteurization of milk helps to prevent

A)tularemia.
B)plague.
C)endocarditis.
D)brucellosis.
E)mononucleosis.

Question 25

Symptoms of infectious mononucleosis include

A)vesicular lesions in oral mucosa.
B)fever and pocks on skin.
C)sore throat,fever,cervical lymphadenopathy,and splenomegaly.
D)fever,severe diarrhea,pneumonitis,hepatitis,and retinitis.
E)None of the choices is correct.

Question 26

Which is incorrect about malaria?

A)Merozoites enter and multiply in liver cells.
B)Trophozoites develop in RBCs.
C)The mosquito inoculates human blood with sporozoites.
D)Gametocytes enter the mosquito as she draws a blood meal from a human.
E)Cerebral malaria is a potential serious complication.

Question 27

The reservoir for Lassa fever is the

A)monkey.
B)rat.
C)gorilla.
D)cat.
E)cattle.

Question 28

Which of the following is mismatched?

A)Yersinia pestis - plague
B)Coxiella burnetii - Q fever
C)Bartonella quintana - trench fever
D)Bartonella henselae - cat-scratch disease
E)Rickettsia typhi - Rocky Mountain spotted fever

Question 29

Which of the following is a hemorrhagic fever?

A)yellow fever
B)trench fever
C)Q fever
D)Rocky Mountain spotted fever
E)cat-scratch fever

Question 30

The gram-negative bacillus associated with abscesses from cat bites or scratches is

A)Salmonella typhimurium.
B)Yersinia enterocolitica.
C)Bartonella henselae.
D)Brucella suis.
E)Francisella tularensis.

Question 31

Rocky Mountain spotted fever

A)is seen in highest numbers along the west coast.
B)is transmitted by Ixodes ticks.
C)symptoms include fever,headache,and rash.
D)never has severe complications.
E)All of the choices are correct.

Question 32

Which type of hemorrhagic fever can be treated with ribavirin?

A)Lassa fever
B)Ebola
C)Marburg
D)dengue fever
E)yellow fever

Question 33

Brucellosis is

A)a zoonosis.
B)seen in the patient as a fluctuating fever,with headache,muscle pain,and weakness.
C)also known as undulant fever.
D)an occupational illness of people who work with animals.
E)All of the choices are correct.

Question 34

Which type of hemorrhagic fever is also known as "breakbone fever" because of the severe pain in bones?

A)Lassa fever
B)Ebola
C)Marburg
D)dengue fever
E)yellow fever

Question 35

The cyclic bouts of fever and chills in malaria are caused by

A)liver cell lysis.
B)white blood cell lysis.
C)red blood cell lysis.
D)neurological involvement.
E)None of the choices is correct.

Question 36

The symptoms that occur in cyclic 48- to 72- hour episodes in a malaria patient are

A)bloody,mucus-filled stools,fever,diarrhea,and weight loss.
B)fever,swollen lymph nodes,and joint pain.
C)urinary frequency and pain,and vaginal discharge.
D)chills,fever,and sweating.
E)sore throat,low-grade fever,and swollen lymph nodes.

Question 37

Epstein-Barr virus has the following characteristics except it

A)is more commonly found in adults.
B)is transmitted by direct oral contact and saliva.
C)produces sudden leukocytosis.
D)has a 30- to 50- day incubation.
E)can be transmitted by contaminated blood transfusions and organ transplants.

Question 38

Lyme disease is transmitted by

A)flies.
B)droplets.
C)lice.
D)fleas.
E)ticks.

Question 39

Cat-scratch fever can be prevented by

A)avoiding ticks.
B)pasteurizing milk.
C)vaccine.
D)animal control.
E)cleaning the scratch wound.

Question 40

Which is incorrect regarding Q fever?

A)transmitted by lice
B)pathogen produces resistant spores
C)humans infected from unpasteurized milk and airborne spread
D)causes fever,muscle aches,rash,and sometimes pneumonia
E)is a zoonosis

Question 41

Lyme disease is only seen in people living in Lyme,Connecticut.

Question 42

Plague is a zoonotic disease.

Question 43

A common cardiovascular/lymph system disease in AIDS patients is

A)acute endocarditis.
B)Burkitt's lymphoma.
C)herpes simplex virus.
D)ehrlichioses.
E)brucellosis.

Question 44

The highest numbers of cases of Rocky Mountain spotted fever occur along the eastern seaboard.

Question 45

Documented transmission of HIV involves

A)mosquitoes.
B)unprotected sexual intercourse and contact with blood/blood products.
C)respiratory droplets.
D)contaminated food.
E)All of the choices are correct.

Question 46

A vaccine for Lyme disease is available.

Question 47

Which drugs interfere with the action of an HIV enzyme needed for final assembly and maturation of the virus?

A)reverse transcriptase inhibitors
B)protease inhibitors
C)fusion inhibitors
D)integrase inhibitors
E)All of the choices are correct.

Question 48

Characteristics of Bacillus anthracis include all the following except

A)capsule and exotoxins are virulence factors.
B)a one-time vaccine provides lifelong immunity.
C)reservoir includes infected grazing animals and contaminated soil.
D)gram-positive bacillus.
E)spore former.

Question 49

All of the following pertain to patients with AIDS except they

A)have an immunodeficiency.
B)have CD4 T-cell titers below 200 cells/mm³ of blood.
C)get repeated,life-threatening opportunistic infections.
D)can get unusual cancers and neurological disorders.
E)have the highest number of cases worldwide in the United States.

Question 50

Each of the following may be used in the treatment of anthrax except

A)penicillin.
B)ciprofloxacin.
C)doxycycline.
D)chloroquine.

Question 51

The causative organism of malaria is a

A)bacterium.
B)virus.
C)fungus.
D)protozoan.
E)prion.

Question 52

A frequent cancer that is seen in AIDS patients is

A)leukemia.
B)Hodgkin's lymphoma.
C)Kaposi's sarcoma.
D)melanoma.
E)myeloma.

Question 53

Aedes mosquitoes are the vectors involved in yellow fever and dengue fever.

Question 54

Retroviruses have the following characteristics except

A)glycoprotein spikes.
B)DNA genome.
C)enveloped.
D)reverse transcriptase.
E)viral genes integrate into the host genome.

Question 55

Anthrax is

A)a zoonosis.
B)transmitted by contact,inhalation,and ingestion.
C)a disease that,in humans,can cause a rapidly fatal toxemia and septicemia.
D)only seen sporadically in the United States.
E)All of the choices are correct.

Question 56

All of the following pertain to HIV except

A)attaches primarily to host cells with CD4 receptors.
B)initial infection often associated with vague symptoms.
C)becomes latent in host cells.
D)ELISA and Western blot tests detect HIV antigens.
E)can enter into nervous tissues and cause abnormalities.

Question 57

In severe cases of Rocky Mountain spotted fever,the enlarged lesions of the rash can become necrotic and predispose the patient to gangrene of toes and fingertips.

Question 58

The cardiovascular and lymphatic systems have no normal biota.

Question 59

Which new class of drugs will interfere with docking onto host cells?

A)reverse transcriptase inhibitors
B)protease inhibitors
C)fusion inhibitors
D)integrase inhibitors
E)All of the choices are correct.

Question 60

Malaria may be prevented by

A)using bed nets sprayed with insecticide.
B)eliminating standing water.
C)taking prophylactic drugs.
D)decreasing the mosquito population.
E)All of the choices are correct.

Question 61

When should Suzanne's newborn baby be tested for HIV,assuming she does not breast-feed?

A)at birth
B)6 months of age
C)at birth and 6 months of age
D)every 6 months for 3 years

Question 62

Suzanne wants to know the risk of her child being HIV positive.What is the risk?

A)The child will be HIV positive because Suzanne is HIV positive,and there is no way to prevent transmission.
B)Since HIV is passed through the father,the child will be HIV negative.
C)It is impossible to know if HIV will be passed on to the child,but you can decrease the chances by vigilant antiretroviral therapy.
D)Fetal immunity will ward off HIV during pregnancy,but the child should not breast-feed.

Question 63

What is the cause of the cyclical nature of Nani's symptoms?

A)Just as she begins to recover,a new vector reinfects her.
B)The village doctor's treatments must be working intermittently.
C)It is secondary to the synchronous rupture of RBCs.
D)Nani's liver is failing in stages,and the symptoms coincide.

Question 64

Under normal healthy circumstances the lymphatic system filters any microorganisms present.

Question 65

Rifampin is the drug of choice for malaria.

Question 66

As Suzanne is leaving her appointment,you decide to give her some advice on prevention measures.What is the best form of prevention for HIV,assuming sexual abstinence is not an option?

A)use of barrier-method contraceptive
B)contraceptive drugs
C)treatment of all sexual partners with HAART
D)compliance with treatment regimens

Question 67

The doctors decide that Jennifer is septic,and administer several boluses of normal saline while having you place her on vasoactive drugs to increase her blood pressure.What are the important next steps?

A)respiratory support,blood cultures,and antibiotics
B)wound drainage and antibiotics
C)antiseizure regimen,blood cultures,and antibiotics
D)respiratory support and antifever therapy

Question 68

You approach the physician you are reporting to at the moment with Nani's clinical diagnosis and findings.However,before you even approach him,you are well aware of what treatment he is going to order.In this case,what is the first line treatment?

A)chloroquine and doxycycline
B)vancomycin and ceftazidime
C)azidothymidine and Fuzeon
D)acyclovir and cefdinir

Question 69

If Nani refuses treatment,or treatment is not successful,what may be the ultimate cause of death?

A)malaremia
B)multiorgan failure
C)Kaposi's sarcoma
D)endocarditis

Question 70

What preventive measures should you recommend to Nani's family who has accompanied her?

A)move to a new home
B)avoid stagnant water sites
C)use of bed nets
D)prophylactic antimalarials

Question 71

What is the likelihood that this presentation is fungal in nature?

A)90%
B)50%
C)10%
D)0%

Question 72

The leading cause of morbidity and mortality in AIDS patients is Pneumocystis pneumonia.

Question 73

Suzanne knows that she acquired HIV from a previous sexual partner.What is the primary mode of transmission of HIV?

A)saliva and blood
B)sexual contact and blood
C)sexual contact and body fluids
D)blood and other body fluids

Question 74

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A)Dengue fever
B)bacterial septicemia
C)postoperative hemorrhagic fever
D)fungemia

Question 75

Your suspicions are confirmed a few days later,with S.aureus being the primary organism responsible for Jennifer's septicemia.Although empiric antibiotic therapy was initiated,what is the next step?

A)continue initial empiric therapy,as cessation could encourage resistance
B)narrow antibiotic coverage as indicated
C)cease antibiotics,3 days of treatment is the standard
D)continue empiric coverage,as other organisms may have gone undetected

Question 76

What has been the most successful treatment in reducing transmission of HIV from mother to baby?

A)antiretroviral therapy
B)protease inhibitors
C)transcriptase inhibitors
D)fusion inhibitors

Question 77

It is discovered through Gram stain that the offending microorganism is gram-positive cocci in grapelike clusters.Although the final culture has not come back yet,which organism can you best assume is responsible?

A)Staphylococcus aureus
B)Streptococcus pneumoniae
C)Enterococcus
D)Bactococcus streptemia

Question 78

If you had the ability to perform more thorough blood tests on Nani,what would you expect to find?

A)hyperglycemia,increased RBCs
B)hyperglycemia,decreased RBCs
C)hypoglycemia,increased RBCs
D)hypoglycemia,decreased RBCs