Deck 6: Predictors

Question 1

If a test has a validity coefficient of .50, the coefficient of determination is:

A)1.00
B).25
C).50
D)2.50

Answer 1

.25

Question 2

_____ is important because we use predictors as proxies for real performance.

A)Content validity
B)Criterion-related validity
C)Ecological validity
D)Reliability

Answer 2

Criterion-related validity

Question 3

Blake is the HR director for a professional sports team. She is looking for a test that measures general cognitive ability. Which of these would meet Blake's needs?

A)Mental Measurements Test
B)Test of Mechanical Concepts
C)Purdue Pegboard test
D)Wonderlic Personnel Test

Answer 3

Wonderlic Personnel Test

Question 4

Which of these is the most cost-effective testing method for selection?

A)group tests
B)individual tests
C)hybrid tests
D)power tests

Question 5

Calvin has to participate in a test during which he has to demonstrate that he can use a forklift correctly. This type of test is known as a(n):

A)procedural test.
B)performance test.
C)dexterity test.
D)adaptive test.

Question 6

When Josie applies for the job of store cashier, she is given a test that involves answering 150 simple addition and subtraction items. She is told to answer as many of the questions as she can in 10 minutes. The type of test that Josie is taking is a:

A)power test.
B)speed test.
C)performance test.
D)psychomotor test.

Question 7

The most appropriate first step in selecting or developing predictors is:

A)job analysis.
B)validity analysis.
C)performance appraisal.
D)realistic job preview.

Question 8

The index of the relationship between a predictor and a criterion is known as a:

A)performance coefficient.
B)validity coefficient.
C)mode.
D)squared criterion.

Question 9

A systematic procedure for observing behavior and describing it with the aid of numerical scales or fixed categories is known as:

A)an inventory.
B)a test.
C)a prediction.
D)a criterion.

Question 10

Dan is a candidate for a nursing job. He is asked to complete a test that includes items that tap medical knowledge, but he is not given any particular time limit within which to complete the test. Dan is likely taking a(n):

A)ability test.
B)performance test.
C)speed test.
D)power test.

Question 11

Which of these is a drawback of using individual tests for selection?

A)The items are difficult and there is no fixed time limit for administration.
B)They can be used for lower-level employees only and there is no validity evidence.
C)They have a long administration time and need to be scored by an expert.
D)They are easy to fake and the results are not relevant outside the United States.

Question 12

There are two main types of cognitive ability tests:

A)emotional intelligence and practical intelligence.
B)Project Alpha and Project Beta.
C)general cognitive ability and specific cognitive ability.
D)speed tests and power tests.

Question 13

Tests that require the manipulation of an object or a piece of equipment and include demonstration of manual dexterity and psychomotor skills are referred to as:

A)performance tests.
B)individual tests.
C)power tests.
D)speed tests.

Question 14

The SAT is an example of a(n):

A)integrity test.
B)spatial ability test.
C)performance test.
D)paper-and-pencil test.

Question 15

Jerika has to choose among four different ability tests. Of these options, which one represents the BEST choice?

A)a test with a validity coefficient of .15
B)a test with a validity coefficient of .30
C)a test with a coefficient of determination of .01
D)a test with a coefficient of determination of .00

Question 16

An HR manager wants to know the psychometric properties of a particular selection test as well as the costs and time involved in administering it. Which resource should he use?

A)Wechsler Inventory Book
B)Educational Testing Services Guidelines
C)Mental Measurements Yearbook
D)Personnel Measurements Guide

Question 17

An I/O psychologist finds that 20% of the variance in a criterion is accounted for by the predictor. This value represents the:

A)validity coefficient.
B)validity correlation.
C)coefficient of determination.
D)criteria coefficient.

Question 18

Which statement best summarizes research on test delivery?

A)Students who used pencil-and-paper tests outperformed those who used handheld computers.
B)Students who used paper-and-pencil tests outperformed those who used notebook computers.
C)Students who used any type of computer outscored those who used paper-and-pencil tests.
D)There are no meaningful differences between students who take their tests using a computer and those who take it using pencil and paper.

Question 19

Because people believe that mental functioning or intelligence is important for most jobs, _____ tests are among the most frequently used predictors in selection.

A)cognitive ability
B)mechanical ability
C)personality
D)emotional intelligence

Question 20

If one does well on the first set of questions on the GRE, he or she will receive more difficult questions in the next set. If one does poorly on those first questions, he or she will receive easier questions. This type of testing is known as:

A)flexible testing.
B)testing accommodations.
C)computer adaptive testing.
D)calibrated testing.

Question 21

Which of these explains why integrity tests have taken a more important role in selection?

A)passage of the Employee Polygraph Protection Act
B)research indicating that job candidates engage in faking behavior
C)increasing rates of counterproductive behavior in the workplace
D)an increasing number of arrests for white-collar crimes in the United States

Question 22

The Wonderlic Personnel Test is an example of a _____, whereas the Minnesota Clerical Test is an example of a _____.

A)general cognitive ability test; specific cognitive ability test
B)spatial ability test; mechanical ability test
C)specific cognitive ability test; general cognitive ability test
D)clerical ability test; emotional intelligence test

Question 23

Maggie wants to select applicants based on their predisposition to be dependable and hardworking across situations. Which selection test should she use for this purpose?

A)personality
B)emotional intelligence
C)general cognitive ability
D)integrity

Question 24

There are two types of integrity tests: the personality-type integrity test, and the:

A)cognitive-type integrity test
B)overt integrity test
C)covert integrity test
D)biologically based integrity test

Question 25

Approximately how much variance in performance is explained by cognitive ability?

A)less than 10%
B)between 10% and 20%
C)between 25% and 35%
D)between 64% and 75%

Question 26

Joan wants to hire a bookkeeper and needs to find someone with excellent perceptual speed and accuracy in processing verbal and numerical data. The test most suitable for Joan's use is a:

A)mechanical ability test.
B)spatial ability test.
C)clerical ability test.
D)psychomotor test.

Question 27

Which personality predictors have received the most research attention and are reported to be the BEST predictors of job performance?

A)neuroticism and emotional intelligence
B)agreeableness and adaptability
C)conscientiousness and emotional stability
D)extraversion and openness to experience

Question 28

Approximately how many Fortune 100 companies use personality assessment to screen job applicants?

A)15%
B)40%
C)60%
D)90%

Question 29

A candidate for the job of architect is asked to take a test requires him to mentally rotate a 3-dimensional figure. This test is tapping:

A)mechanical ability.
B)spatial ability.
C)clerical ability.
D)general cognitive ability.

Question 30

There are two types of integrity tests: the overt integrity test and the:

A)covert integrity test.
B)personality-type integrity test.
C)situational judgment integrity test.
D)specific morals integrity test.

Question 31

One of the main concerns researchers have with using personality tests in selection contexts is:

A)the length of time needed to evaluate candidates' responses.
B)that high-quality empirical research to support their use has been slow to develop.
C)the expense involved in purchasing personality questionnaires.
D)the potential for applicants to fake their responses.

Question 32

The Wonderlic Personnel Test is an example of a(n) _____, whereas the Purdue Pegboard test is an example of a _______.

A)performance test; perceptual test
B)emotional intelligence; perceptual test
C)cognitive ability test; psychomotor test
D)specific ability test; general ability test

Question 33

Which type of test is most appropriate for evaluating the sensory abilities of a candidate for fighter pilot training?

A)psychomotor
B)emotional intelligence
C)speed
D)power

Question 34

Some researchers are looking for other predictors to help account for a greater percentage of criterion variance than what is accounted for by general cognitive ability. Their goal is to demonstrate:

A)incremental validity.
B)content validity.
C)construct validity.
D)reliability.

Question 35

Which of these is a Big Five personality factor?

A)conscientiousness
B)adaptability
C)tolerance
D)psychoticism

Question 36

In order to get a job in a toy factory, Hal has to manipulate pegs, washers, and collars around a pegboard as quickly as he can. This test is an example of:

A)a power test.
B)a psychomotor test.
C)a general ability test.
D)a specific ability test.

Question 37

A study conducted by Rode and colleagues (2007) found that emotional intelligence predicted college GPA and group performance, if the student:

A)was also high in specific cognitive ability.
B)was also conscientious.
C)was also popular.
D)was female.

Question 38

Joe recognizes, expresses, understands, and evaluates his own and others' emotions. Joe will likely score high on:

A)openness to experience.
B)emotional intelligence.
C)conscientiousness.
D)citizenship behavior.

Question 39

Which type of test taps the recognition of tools for various purposes?

A)personality
B)psychomotor
C)spatial ability
D)mechanical ability

Question 40

A meta-analysis by Hunter and Hunter (1984) found a validity coefficient between general cognitive ability and performance of:

A).14.
B).25.
C).53.
D).76.

Question 41

One problem with using application blanks as part of the selection process is that:

A)questions are often ambiguous and confusing to applicants.
B)questions are often illegal.
C)organizations use generic application blanks, which leaves them at risk for legal action.
D)organizations rarely have the time to comb through information provided in the application blank.

Question 42

Which of these is typically part of an assessment center?

A)multiple exercises
B)integrity tests
C)psychomotor tests
D)coworker ratings

Question 43

A company uses both personality and cognitive ability tests to select job candidates. It would like to add another predictor to explain additional variance in job performance. One should advise the company to use a(n):

A)integrity test.
B)emotional intelligence test.
C)situational judgment test (SJT).
D)bibliographical information blank (BIB).

Question 44

Which of these is typically part of a leaderless group discussion?

A)a small group of applicants
B)psychomotor tests
C)an unlimited amount of time for the exercise
D)integrity tests

Question 45

An assessment center is:

A)a selection method.
B)a place in a consulting firm.
C)a statistical technique.
D)an organizational descriptor.

Question 46

Melissa is applying for a college professor position. As part of the selection process, she must present a mock lecture in front of the college faculty. This type of selection technique is known as a:

A)biodata test.
B)cognitive ability test.
C)work sample.
D)situational judgment test.

Question 47

An advantage of integrity testing is that initial evidence suggests it can predict counterproductive behavior and:

A)situational judgment.
B)citizenship behavior.
C)job performance.
D)personality.

Question 48

A potential concern about using integrity tests is that:

A)they are illegal in some states.
B)they are vulnerable to faking.
C)high-quality applicants are often screened out by them.
D)they show no reliable relationship to useful criterion.

Question 49

The purpose of administering an in-basket as part of an assessment center is to:

A)evaluate an applicant in a situation similar to what he or she would experience on the job.
B)observe an applicant when no leader is assigned to a group.
C)measure the predominant personality characteristics of an applicant.
D)evaluate how an applicant handles an ambiguous situation with no clear instructions.

Question 50

Research has shown that the validity coefficient for assessment centers is about:

A).22.
B).40.
C).65.
D).70.

Question 51

Which statement about work samples is true?

A)They are one of the most valid predictors of job performance.
B)Most applicants believe the tests lack face validity.
C)They demonstrate a strong bias against younger applicants.
D)They demonstrate poor criterion-related validity.

Question 52

Bill is a candidate for the job of store security guard. He watches a videotaped scenario of an attempted store theft and is then given four alternatives for how to respond to the theft. The type of test that Bill is MOST LIKELY taking is a:

A)situational judgment test (SJT).
B)mechanical ability test.
C)biodata test.
D)power test.

Question 53

On one selection test, Malia encounters a question that asks whether she has ever stolen from a previous employer. This test is MOST LIKELY a(n):

A)overt integrity test.
B)covert integrity test.
C)personality-based integrity test.
D)emotional intelligence test.

Question 54

Which statement about situational judgment tests (SJTs) is true?

A)They predict behavior beyond what is predicted by cognitive ability and personality.
B)They are more valid when presented in paper-and-pencil form.
C)They are less valid when based on a job analysis.
D)They fail to predict contextual performance.

Question 55

On a selection test, Henri encounters a number of questions about whether he enjoys risk taking, whether he is responsible, and whether he is ever dishonest. The test is MOST LIKELY a(n):

A)overt integrity test
B)personality-based integrity test
C)emotional intelligence test
D)general cognitive ability test

Question 56

One way in which Biographical Information Blanks (BIBs) differ from application blanks is that BIBs:

A)require narrative responses.
B)contain very few (less than 10) questions.
C)ask very specific work-related questions.
D)ask questions that cover broad areas.

Question 57

Darius takes part in a selection session in which he completes an in-basket and a leaderless group discussion. This selection tool is best described as:

A)a situational judgment test.
B)a biodata test.
C)an interview.
D)an assessment center.

Question 58

A(n) _____ requests historical information such as educational background, work experience, job-relevant experience, and the names and addresses of previous employers.

A)in-basket
B)application blank
C)work sample
D)individual test

Question 59

Selection tests that attempt to duplicate performance criterion measures and use them as predictors are known as:

A)psychomotor tests.
B)work sample tests.
C)mechanical ability tests.
D)biodata.

Question 60

Which of these dimensions is typically rated in a leaderless group discussion?

A)physical disability
B)listening skills
C)mental health
D)deviance

Question 61

Dasha is applying to work in a factory. One of the tasks she must complete during the selection process is to place a certain number of washers onto a pegboard in a short amount of time. This test is intended to assess whether she has the manual dexterity to do the assembly work in the factory. One would consider this test to be a(n):

A)integrity test.
B)psychometric test.
C)power test.
D)performance test.

Question 62

The Biodata Handbook indicates that validity coefficients for biodata range between:

A).10 and .20.
B).20 and .46.
C).60 and .75.
D).70 and .80.

Question 63

In most college exams, students are given difficult multiple choice or essay questions and have adequate time to complete those questions. One would MOST LIKELY categorize these tests as:

A)integrity tests.
B)speed tests.
C)power tests.
D)psychomotor tests.

Question 64

An interviewer says, "Tell me about a time when you had a conflict with a coworker." This would be an example of a(n) _____ interview.

A)unstandardized
B)reflective
C)situational
D)behavior description

Question 65

"Tell me about a time you came up with a creative idea" is an example of a(n) _____ question; "What would you do if you realized you made a mistake?" is an example of a(n) _____ question.

A)situational interview; behavior description interview
B)behavior description interview; situational interview
C)structured interview; unstructured interview
D)unstructured interview; structured interview

Question 66

An organization hires Lisette to develop a two-predictor selection system that will account for the greatest variance in job performance. She has identified general cognitive ability as one predictor. To demonstrate the greatest incremental validity she should choose:

A)integrity tests.
B)unstructured interviews.
C)application blanks.
D)realistic job previews.

Question 67

While conducting interviews, Martina always asks all applicants the exact same questions. Martina has conducted a(n) _____ interview.

A)standardized
B)structured
C)unstructured
D)unstandardized

Question 68

An interviewer says, "Imagine you disagree with a decision your supervisor has made. What would you do?" This would be an example of a(n) _____ interview.

A)unstandardized
B)prescriptive
C)situational
D)behavior description

Question 69

Which question would be considered legally appropriate to ask in a job interview?

A)Do you plan on having children?
B)How many days were you absent from work due to illness in the past year?
C)Have you ever been arrested?
D)Are you eligible to work in the United States?

Question 70

A _____ test contains relatively easy items that must be taken within a short amount of time.

A)psychomotor
B)speed
C)performance
D)power

Question 71

An applicant for a customer service job completed a questionnaire in which the following questions were among those asked: "To what extent would your friends describe you as sympathetic?" and "When you feel strongly about something, how easily can you persuade others to see your point of view?" From these questions, which test did the applicant take?

A)in-basket test
B)integrity test
C)speed test
D)biodata test

Question 72

Even though interviews have fairly low criterion-related validity, including them in a selection system is helpful because:

A)it is necessary to be able to legally defend a selection system.
B)it provides applicants with a realistic job preview.
C)it demonstrates no bias against minority members.
D)low performers tend to dislike interviews, so including them can help to make the applicant pool smaller.

Question 73

What are the two major types of job interview?

A)individual and group
B)individual and panel
C)structured and unstructured
D)overt and covert

Question 74

Which option lists predictors from MOST valid to LEAST valid?

A)general cognitive ability, assessment center, unstructured interview
B)assessment center, general cognitive ability, unstructured interview
C)unstructured interview, assessment center, general cognitive ability
D)unstructured interview, general cognitive ability, assessment center

Question 75

A _____ contains relatively difficult items, but has no set time limit for completion.

A)power test
B)speed test
C)performance test
D)psychomotor test

Question 76

According to research, the most valid type of interview is:

A)a structured interview.
B)an unstructured interview.
C)a realistic interview.
D)a global interview.

Question 77

Asking applicants about future behavior occurs in a _____ interview; asking applicants about past behavior occurs in a _____ interview.

A)retrospective; prospective
B)prospective; retrospective
C)situational; behavior description
D)behavior description; situational

Question 78

Recent research on interviews suggests that:

A)interviews are not affected by nonverbal factors such as physical attractiveness.
B)interviews are free from rating biases such as halo error and similarity effects.
C)structured interviews are better predictors of job performance than unstructured interviews.
D)interviewers can predict when individuals will be hired 94% of the time.

Question 79

June has interviewed two different people. For the first applicant, she asked about strengths and weaknesses; for the second applicant, she asked about interests and experiences. In these cases, June has conducted _____ interviews.

A)illegal
B)formal
C)structured
D)unstructured

Question 80

One of the benefits of computer adaptive testing is that:

A)the test adjusts the difficulty according to test-taker's responses, which allows quick assessment of their ability level.
B)the test requires that applicants have knowledge of how to use computer programs, which is likely to be job-relevant.
C)the text sizes are large, which makes it easier for older applicants to complete the test.
D)it is very cheap and easy to develop.