Deck 8: Political Parties

Question 1

At each national convention, a political party drafts what document that outlines the party's policies, positions, and principles?

A) Ordinance
B) Caucus
C) Constitution
D) Platform
E) Treaty

Answer 1

D

Question 2

Which of the following best describes the system of patronage?

A) Another name for representation
B) Only occurred at the national level
C) Ended by the time of the Civil War
D) Rewarded party faithful with government jobs and contracts
E) Guarantees mentors for newly elected officials

Answer 2

D

Question 3

Why was the presidential election of 1912 unique?

A) The Democratic Party temporarily split in two.
B) There were three significant contenders for the presidency.
C) Two Roosevelts ran against each other.
D) All of the major parties opposed progressivism.
E) The election was decided in the House of Representatives.

Answer 3

B

Question 4

The four most important functions of a political party are structuring the voting choice in elections, proposing alternative government programs, coordinating the actions of government officials, and which of the following?

A) Nominating candidates for election to public office
B) Engineering federal budget proposals
C) Organizing partisan protests
D) Acting as a link between federal and state governments
E) Introducing legislation to Congress

Question 5

Which of the following lays out the party's core beliefs and policy proposals?

A) Agenda
B) Charter
C) Constitution
D) Party platform
E) White paper

Question 6

Which of the following best describes the populist movement, which supported inflation to reduce the value of outstanding debts?

A) Part of the Republican Party of Reconstruction
B) The initial platform for women's right to vote
C) Supported by urban working-class voters
D) Able to decisively alter national government policies
E) Formed to champion the interests of small farmers

Question 7

The task of planning the next campaign and convention, obtaining financial contributions, and publicizing the national party belongs to which of the following?

A) National chairperson
B) Presidential nominee
C) State chairperson
D) State committee
E) Local delegation

Question 8

What is at the top of the party organization with its members chosen by each state party organization?

A) Campaign committees
B) National committees
C) Party caucuses
D) Officials
E) State central committees

Question 9

A centralized organization that dominated local politics by controlling elections, sometimes by illegal means, is known as which of the following?

A) Party ideology
B) Campaign committee
C) Party machine
D) Party conference
E) Party government

Question 10

The first partisan political division in the United States was between which of the following?

A) The Democrats and the Republicans
B) The Whigs and the Democrats
C) The Federalists and the Anti-Federalists
D) The Whigs and the Tories
E) The Whigs and the Republicans

Question 11

The first political parties in the United States, the Federalists and Anti-Federalists, had opposing views related to which of the following?

A) Prohibition of the slave trade and slavery
B) Importance of economic interests in leaders
C) Amount of power that should be granted to the national government
D) Types of taxation permitted by the various levels of government
E) Role of religion in government

Question 12

The main purpose of a political party is to do which of the following in order to control government and implement its policies?

A) Nominate candidates
B) Win elections
C) Shape the judiciary
D) Discuss policy
E) Register voters

Question 13

A political party is a group of individuals who do which of the following?

A) Answer strictly to designated party leaders
B) Agree on all policy issues
C) Obtain positions of official power
D) Organize to win elections and operate the government
E) Pay monthly dues to an ideological organization

Question 14

Which of the following is a group of individuals who join together to choose candidates for elected office, whether by informal group voting or a formal nominating process?

A) Interest group
B) Political party
C) Labor union
D) Lobby
E) Special interest

Question 15

Political parties used the patronage system as a way to do which of the following?

A) Shrink party loyalty
B) Gain access to Congress
C) Build party loyalty
D) Increase party disunity
E) Gain access to interest groups

Question 16

Which of the following is the lowest layer of official party machinery?

A) The local organization supported by district leaders, precinct or ward captains, and party workers
B) The state party chairperson and committees
C) The national campaign chairperson's volunteers
D) The White House interns
E) The national convention delegates

Question 17

Which of the following is the primary goal of an American political party?

A) Peaceably influencing the American public
B) Signing up large numbers of deeply committed members
C) Getting the party's candidates elected to office by winning elections
D) Collecting member dues
E) Trying to find the other party doing "bad" things

Question 18

Which of the following best describes George Washington's views on political parties?

A) Necessity for the functioning of democracy
B) Tradition from colonial times that would always exist
C) Threat to national unity and popular government
D) Legitimate means for interest groups to attempt to gain control of the government
E) Vestige of politics under Great Britain and thus a thing of the past

Question 19

Which of the following describes the formation of the modern Republican Party?

A) It was formed as a response to the Seneca Falls Convention for women's rights.
B) It was formed from a coalition of antislavery factions.
C) It was formed as an outgrowth of the Southern Whigs.
D) It was formed as the party supporting rum, Romanism, and rebellion.
E) It was formed during the era of good feelings.

Question 20

What most distinguishes political parties from interest groups like the AFL-CIO and the National Association of Manufacturers?

A) Political parties focus on multiple issues, whereas each interest group only focuses on one.
B) Political parties have more money than interest groups.
C) Interest groups do not nominate candidates to run as their avowed representatives.
D) Interest groups have no clear political ideology.
E) Pluralists do not think interest groups are necessary for democracy to function.

Question 21

The winner-take-all principle can be observed in the United States when which of the following selects the president and the vice president?

A) Party elders
B) Electoral college
C) National committee
D) Party-in-government
E) Voters in each state

Question 22

Which of the following best describes the reason that the two-party system has endured in the United States?

A) Constitutional provision for a bipartisan system that mirrors the bicameral legislature
B) Prevalence of single-member electoral districts
C) Prevalence of multimember electoral districts
D) Rules of proportional representation
E) Constitutional restriction on the speech of third-party candidates

Question 23

After winning office in 1828, Andrew Jackson shortened the name of his party to what, signaling that it was a new kind of political party organization?

A) Whig Party
B) Green Party
C) Democratic Party
D) Republican Party
E) Progressive Party

Question 24

Why are elections based on a plurality system discouraging to new party formation?

A) Plurality requires each party to be as narrowly based as possible, leaving little room for new parties.
B) Plurality gives an advantage to savvy political unknowns who can grab the media spotlight.
C) Plurality requires parties to form alliances with other parties to win elections.
D) Only parties receiving more than 5% of the vote are allocated seats.
E) Under this winner-take-all system, no incentive is given for finishing second.

Question 25

The Republican Party was established to deal with which of the following issues?

A) Taxes
B) Slavery
C) School prayer
D) Free trade
E) Silver

Question 26

Which of the following best describes what happens during "wave elections"?

A) Dissatisfaction with the performance of one party or another can produce a wave of support for the other party.
B) The effects of the election results are temporary.
C) Support for the major parties realigns.
D) The results are landslide victories for Republicans or Democrats.
E) Dissatisfaction with the performance of one party or another can produce a wave of support for the other party, and the effects of the election results are temporary.

Question 27

Which of the following best describes political parties during the period leading up to the Civil War?

A) The Whig Party split over the issue of slavery.
B) Antislavery factions of many parties coalesced to form the Republican Party.
C) The Federalist Party experienced a resurgence of support.
D) The Whig Party split over the issue of slavery, and antislavery factions of many parties coalesced to form the Republican Party.
E) Antislavery factions of many parties coalesced to form the Republican Party, and the Federalist Party experienced a resurgence of support.

Question 28

Today, a voter who is an evangelical Christian living in a rural area is most likely to support which of the following?

A) Democratic candidates
B) Republican candidates
C) Federalist candidates
D) Libertarian candidates
E) Socialist candidates

Question 29

A Republican who opposes government regulation of both social and economic issues best fits in with which of the following?

A) Libertarian Republicans
B) Business Republicans
C) The religious right
D) Nationalist Republicans
E) Social conservatives

Question 30

From 1832 to 1856, which two parties dominated American politics and presidential elections?

A) Democrats and Democratic-Republicans
B) Democrats and Republicans
C) Democrats and Whigs
D) Republicans and Democratic-Republicans
E) Republicans and Whigs

Question 31

The 2006 midterm elections, which saw growing frustration with the Iraq War, led to major Democratic gains in Congress. This is an example of which of the following?

A) A swing election
B) Realignment
C) Coattails
D) A surge election
E) A wave election

Question 32

Which of the following philosophies is central to the Republican Party today?

A) Socialism
B) Liberalism
C) Conservatism
D) Environmentalism
E) Progressivism

Question 33

Just prior to the Civil War, which party was born from a coalition of antislavery Liberty Party members, Free Soilers, and antislavery northern Democrats?

A) Southern Democratic Party
B) Republican Party
C) Progressive Party
D) Democratic Party
E) Libertarian Party

Question 34

Which party won most presidential elections from 1932, during the Great Depression, through the election of 1964, when the turbulent 1960s created the environment for a major political realignment?

A) Democratic
B) Tea
C) Populist
D) Republican
E) Liberal

Question 35

The adoption of which of the following would permit multiple parties to acquire seats in Congress because representation would be based on the percentage of votes that they receive in national elections?

A) Divided representation
B) Patronage
C) Australian ballots
D) Proportional representation
E) Ticket splitting

Question 36

In twenty-first century politics, internal differences in both of the two major parties often pit which of the following against each other?

A) Libertarians against conservatives
B) Moderates against radicals
C) Women against men
D) Southerners against northerners
E) Big government advocates against small government advocates

Question 37

Which of the following statements about third parties in the United States is true?

A) They have been relatively inactive throughout the history of presidential elections.
B) They generally downplay ideology in favor of winning elections.
C) They are discouraged by the election laws in many states.
D) They have been increasingly more important in many national elections, most recently in 2004.
E) They do not need to meet minimum signature requirements in order to appear on ballots.

Question 38

Over time, which of the following best identifies what most voters do?

A) Support the economic positions of their party, regardless of how they feel about its cultural positions
B) Support the cultural positions of their party, regardless of how they feel about its economic positions
C) Choose a party for economic reasons
D) Choose a party for cultural reasons
E) Support both the cultural and economic positions of their party

Question 39

The party most likely to support states' rights in 1800 would have been which of the following?

A) The National Republicans
B) The Constitutional Unionists
C) The Whigs
D) The Federalists
E) The Jeffersonian Republicans

Question 40

Which of the following best describes the views of many political scientists and scholars on third parties?

A) They are incapable of effective grassroots organization.
B) They have consistently failed because they never reflect the political mood of the nation.
C) They serve as a safety valve for dissident political groups and prevent major confrontations and political unrest.
D) They can come into existence only if they are organized around a single charismatic leader.
E) They can come into existence only if they split off from one of the major political parties.

Question 41

The system by which legislative seats are awarded to a party in proportion to the vote that party wins in an election is called what type of representation?

A) Majority
B) Proportional
C) Bipartisan
D) Electoral
E) Common

Question 42

John frequently supports Democratic candidates for national office but usually votes for Republicans in state and local elections. Which of the following best describes John?

A) Swing voter
B) Split-ticket voter
C) Independent
D) Dealigned voter
E) Splinter voter

Question 43

Minor political parties that present an alternative to the two dominant political parties in the American political system are known as which of the following?

A) Factions
B) Third party
C) Alternative parties
D) Right wingers
E) Choice parties

Question 44

Evaluate the different functions of political parties in the American system of government.

Question 45

Evaluate the degree to which party polarization exists, and discuss its implications for government, politics, and law.

Question 46

Which of the following holds the view that large-scale realignments in political party support are no longer likely?

A) Dealignment theory
B) Electoral stability theory
C) Voter stability theory
D) Rigidity theory
E) Volatility theory

Question 47

Which of the following best describes realignment?

A) It is of necessity tied to specific elections.
B) It takes place when a substantial group of voters switches party allegiance.
C) It takes place when one dominant party replaces another one.
D) It took place on schedule in 2004.
E) It has been predicted as inevitable in the foreseeable future.

Question 48

Which of the following constitutes an example of a realignment?

A) Antislavery Republicans left to join the Democratic Party before the Civil War.
B) Working-class voters abandoned the Republican Party in 1896 due to the Republicans' populist politics.
C) The New Deal Democratic Coalition brought African Americans and ardent segregationists into the same party in 1932.
D) Cultural conservatives abandoned the Republicans in 1968, especially in the South.
E) Evangelical Christians abandoned the Republican Party and voted for Jimmy Carter in 1976.

Question 49

Which of the following best describes "tipping"?

A) It occurs when a substantial group of voters switches party allegiance.
B) It occurs when increasing numbers of voters call themselves "independents."
C) It occurs when a group that is becoming more numerous over time grows large enough to change the political balance in a state.
D) It occurs as a result of immigration or differential birth rates.
E) It occurs only in countries that employ a multiparty system.

Question 50

An electoral system that assigns one seat in a legislative body to represent citizens who live in a district is known as which of the following?

A) Single-member plurality system
B) Proportional representation system
C) Winner-take-all system
D) Disproportional representation system
E) Two-party system

Question 51

Which of the following occurs in a proportional representation electoral system?

A) Candidates for office run in single-seat, winner-take-all districts.
B) Political parties win seats in a legislature based on the proportion of the vote they receive.
C) Election results are roughly proportional to the amount of money raised by each party.
D) Parties win a proportion of seats in a legislature, weighted to give small parties a larger share.
E) The top three parties in an election divide the government proportionally between them.

Question 52

Which of the following is true of a winner-take-all electoral system?

A) The candidate who gets the most votes wins.
B) One must get a majority of votes cast to win.
C) Votes are allocated on a proportional basis.
D) Only parties receiving more than 5% of the vote are allocated seats.
E) A party must have competed in a previous election to be placed on the ballot.

Question 53

Which of the following is true of federal and state laws with regard to third parties?

A) They have encouraged third parties to get candidates on the ballot.
B) They let third parties get fewer signatures to place their candidates on the ballot than major parties.
C) The two major parties have a clear advantage because the laws have fewer obstacles for them.
D) The federal laws have made it easy for third- or minor-party candidates to get federal matching funds.
E) All of these are correct.

Question 54

Proportional representation tends to do which of the following?

A) Base election results on the winner-take-all approach
B) Award office to the single candidate who wins the most votes
C) Only be used in the United States
D) Force interest groups to work within the two major parties
E) Perpetuate several political parties

Question 55

The American electoral system can be described as both a single-member plurality system and which of the following?

A) No-party system
B) Two-party system
C) Multiparty system
D) Three-party system
E) Single-party system

Question 56

Which of the following is the least likely reason that the two-party system has dominated the American political landscape?

A) It has dominated due to political socialization and practical considerations.
B) It has dominated due to the winner-take-all electoral system.
C) State and federal laws favor the two major parties.
D) It has dominated due to the historical foundations of the system.
E) Third parties are illegal in many jurisdictions.

Question 57

One of the most convincing explanations for the persistence of the two-party system in the United States lies in its use of which of the following?

A) Single winners chosen by an absolute majority of votes
B) Multiple winners chosen by a proportional representation of votes
C) Multiple winners chosen by a simple plurality of votes
D) Single winners chosen by a proportional representation of votes
E) Single winners chosen by a simple plurality of votes

Question 58

Which of the following statements about voter behavior is most correct?

A) Straight-ticket voting is now nearly universal.
B) The number of people identifying as independents has grown in recent years.
C) Party identification has been increasing.
D) The rise in Democratic identification may be because of southern voters.
E) Split-ticket voting is declining.

Question 59

Which of the following best describes the American electoral system?

A) A winner-take-all, or plurality, system
B) Proportional representation
C) One-party dominance of elections
D) Majoritarianism
E) Multimember constituencies

Question 60

What term is used to describe the phenomenon when voters adjust their long-term allegiance from one party to another in response to ideological changes?

A) Party identification
B) Moving to the center
C) Liberalization
D) Party alignment
E) Realignment

Question 61

Evaluate the ability of third parties to cause change in the U.S. political system.

Question 62

Analyze the role of the Great Depression in shifting voting patterns.

Question 63

Evaluate the ideological differences between the Federalists led by Alexander Hamilton and the Democratic Republicans led by Thomas Jefferson.

Question 64

Describe the importance of independent voters and provide examples of their impact in recent elections.

Question 65

Analyze the differences between the party-in-the-electorate, the party organization, and the party-in-government.

Question 66

Explain what a party machine is and how such machines generally lost power over time.

Question 67

Analyze the factors that reinforce the two-party system in the United States.

Question 68

Evaluate the two-party system in the United States. Is proportional representation a better option?

Question 69

Summarize the major explanations for why the United States features a two-party system and why it has remained stable for so long.

Question 70

Evaluate the degree to which party identification changed among white southerners from 1952 to the present.

Question 71

Explain why political parties formed in the United States. Discuss how their strength and importance has changed over time.

Question 72

Evaluate the extent to which the electorate is headed toward a realignment?

Question 73

Analyze the differences between a political party and an interest group, being sure to provide examples.

Question 74

Analyze the relationship of the national, state, and local party organizations to each other. Include organizational examples of each type.

Question 75

Analyze the differences between the modern Democratic Party and the Republican Party on economic and social issues.

Question 76

Explain the phenomenon of "wave elections" and provide examples.

Question 77

George Washington argued that parties were harmful to the United States. Assess his argument, taking a stance either with or against his point of view and providing evidence for your position.