Deck 15: Neurological Disorders

Question 1

_______________ cannot form the basis of tumors.

A) Astrocytes
B) Oligodendrocytes
C) Glial cells
D) Nerve cells
E) Cells of the meninges

Answer 1

D

Question 2

________ is a mass of cells whose growth is uncontrolled and that serves no useful function in the body.

A) polyp
B) tumor
C) cyst
D) nodule
E) aneurism

Answer 2

B

Question 3

An example of a generalized seizure is a(n) _______________ seizure.

A) autonomic
B) absence
C) psychic
D) motor
E) localized motor

Answer 3

B

Question 4

In contrast to simple partial seizures, complex partial seizures involve

A) a loss of consciousness.
B) alteration (but not loss) of consciousness.
C) a definite focus.
D) most of the brain.
E) scarred brain tissue.

Question 5

The toxic action of brain tumors relates to the

A) observation that tumors use up oxygen and glucose, thereby starving brain cells of energy substrates.
B) ability of tumor cells to stimulate the growth/division of adjacent nerve cells.
C) toxic action of oversecretion of the transmitter GABA from tumor cells.
D) ability of brain tumors to compress tissue, leading to cell death.
E) fact that tumors arising from neuron cells grow very rapidly, thus producing tissue compression.

Question 6

Malignant brain tumors are deadly because such tumors

A) can increase the flow of cerebrospinal fluid, thus causing hydrocephalus.
B) release glutamate.
C) give off cells that travel to other body areas and result in new tumors.
D) release glycine, which kills nearby cells.
E) can only be confirmed at autopsy.

Question 7

A convulsion occurs when a seizure

A) is triggered by oxygen deprivation.
B) involves the motor cortex.
C) has been triggered by a toxic chemical.
D) involves a loss of consciousness.
E) is of the petit mal type in children.

Question 8

The nature of an aura experienced during a seizure varies depending on

A) whether the seizure is above or below threshold.
B) whether the motor system is involved.
C) the location of the seizure focus.
D) how long the person has experienced seizure activity.
E) the amount of fear experienced during the seizure.

Question 9

The case of Mrs. R. involved _______ provoked by a tumor located between her frontal lobes.

A) motor seizures
B) partial paralysis
C) mutism
D) a stroke
E) a speech disorder

Question 10

The key characteristic of a malignant tumor is that such a tumor

A) does not require surgery.
B) cannot cause brain damage.
C) has a distinct border.
D) spreads rapidly through infiltration of adjacent tissue.
E) can give off cancerous cells that in turn reach distant sites.

Question 11

________ is characterized by periodic bouts of abnormally high excitation of cerebral neurons.

A) Parkinson's disease
B) Seizure disorder
C) Tay-Sachs disease
D) Alzheimer's disease
E) Encephalitis

Question 12

An example of a partial seizure is a(n) ___________ seizure.

A) grand mal
B) atonic
C) absence
D) sensory
E) myoclonic

Question 13

In the treatment of tumors, ______________ is usually done first, if possible.

A) radiation
B) chemotherapy
C) vitamin treatment
D) drug therapies
E) surgery

Question 14

The FDA has approved the drug ________ to treat rapidly growing tumors.

A) carbachol
B) fluoxetine
C) dilantin
D) lithium
E) bevacizumab

Question 15

The key characteristic of a benign tumor is that such a tumor

A) cannot cause brain damage.
B) does not require surgery.
C) has a distinct border.
D) spreads rapidly through infiltration of adjacent tissue.
E) mostly arises from neuron cell types.

Question 16

The key distinction between malignant and benign tumors is that

A) malignant tumors mostly appear within structures that are adjacent to large blood vessels.
B) a benign tumor is encapsulated by a distinct border.
C) benign tumors are invariably larger than malignant tumors.
D) malignant tumors arise from neurons rather than glia.
E) benign tumors induce apoptosis but malignant tumors do not.

Question 17

Which of the following is true of a benign brain tumor?

A) Benign tumors cause damage through glutamate release.
B) Benign tumors damage brain tissue by infiltration.
C) The flow of CSF can be increased by a growing benign tumor.
D) Benign tumors are encapsulated.
E) Benign tumors induce apoptosis cascades which kill neurons.

Question 18

A neurinoma is formed from

A) astrocytes.
B) ependymal cells from the ventricles.
C) Schwann cells.
D) nerve cells.
E) cells of the meninges.

Question 19

Malignant brain tumors directly damage brain tissue by

A) compression and infiltration.
B) oversecreting glutamate, which in turns kills adjacent glial cells.
C) oxygen deprivation.
D) inducing hemorrhage.
E) releasing oxygen radicals into brain tissue.

Question 20

________ is an example of a malignant tumor derived from glial cells.

A) meningioma
B) pinealoma
C) angioma
D) metastatic oligodendrocytoma
E) astrocytoma

Question 21

The tonic phase of a grand mal seizure begins

A) when the cortex is inhibited by messages sent from diencephalic structures.
B) when an aura is produced within the cerebellum.
C) when neurons in the motor cortex contract the body muscles.
D) with an excessive release of glutamate in the hippocampus.
E) with a suppression of glycine release within the brain stem.

Question 22

The most common cause of seizure disorder is

A) sudden withdrawal from barbiturate abuse.
B) exposure to toxic chemicals.
C) drug overdose.
D) scarring produced by damage within the brain.
E) sudden withdrawal from opiate abuse.

Question 23

In an ischemic stroke, neurons die because

A) they lose their glucose supply.
B) they lose their supply of oxygen.
C) excess glutamate causes an excitotoxic lesion.
D) excess dopamine causes an excitotoxic lesion.
E) the blood clot infiltrates the tissue.

Question 24

A seizure that starts within the parietal lobe would be expected to produce an aura that involves

A) feelings of being on "pins and needles."
B) hallucinations that include old memories.
C) flashes of light or color.
D) perceptions of a strong odor.
E) muscle twitches.

Question 25

A 50-year-old man has experienced a major stroke caused by a thrombus that occluded brain blood vessels. To prevent the occurrence of another stroke, his physicians would most likely

A) administer an anticoagulant.
B) administer drugs that lower blood pressure.
C) cut out the embolus using invasive surgery.
D) use deep brain stimulation to facilitate neuron regrowth.
E) administer massive doses of antibiotics.

Question 26

The ________ seizure disorder is often seen in children and is characterized by a spell of absence.

A) complex
B) petit mal
C) simple partial
D) atonic
E) dystonic

Question 27

A major cause of obstructive strokes is

A) the failure of weakened blood vessels in response to blood pressure.
B) malformed blood vessels.
C) intracranial bleeding.
D) high blood pressure.
E) a thrombus or an embolus.

Question 28

Prolonged interruption of the blood supply to a region of the brain results in

A) hemorrhage.
B) hyperglycemia.
C) ischemia.
D) galactosemia.
E) vasodilation.

Question 29

During the ________ of a grand mal seizure, the person experiences a(n) _______.

A) tonic phase; contraction of all skeletal muscles
B) clonic phase; aura involving lights
C) clonic phase; contraction of all skeletal muscles
D) tonic phase; eye-rolling and facial grimaces
E) tonic phase; changes in consciousness

Question 30

Chris has a long history of high blood pressure. He takes medications to regulate his blood pressure but he often forgets to take it and doesn't follow the suggested diet from his doctor. These facts make it more likely that he will suffer from a(n) _____________ stroke.

A) ischemic (thrombus)
B) ischemic (embolus)
C) transient
D) hemorrhagic
E) permanent

Question 31

Which of the following most correctly describes the sequence of toxic events that occur in brain during a stroke?

A) increased blood flow -> activation of NA+/K+ transporters -> membrane hyperpolarization -> GABA release -> excessive accumulation of extracellular CA++
B) reduced blood flow -> inactivation of Na+/K+ transporters -> membrane depolarization -> glutamate release -> excessive accumulation of intracellular CA++
C) reduced blood flow -> activation of Na+/K+ transporters -> membrane hyperpolarization -> DA release -> excessive accumulation of intracellular CL-
D) reduced blood flow -> inactivation of Na+/K+ transporters -> membrane hyperpolarization -> GABA release -> excessive accumulation of intracellular CA++
E) increased blood flow -> reduced accumulation of extracellular CA++ -> membrane hyperpolarization -> GABA release

Question 32

During a grand mal seizure, convulsions occur during the ___________ phase.

A) absence
B) tonic
C) clonic
D) aura
E) petit mal

Question 33

A hemorrhagic stroke involves ________ within the brain.

A) vasodilation
B) bleeding
C) an embolus
D) a thrombus
E) obstruction of blood flow

Question 34

An ischemic stroke involves ________ within the brain.

A) vasodilation
B) bleeding
C) shearing of blood vessels
D) an infection of glial cells
E) obstruction of blood flow

Question 35

An aura involving the recall of a childhood memory would most likely reflect seizure activity within the

A) occipital lobes.
B) parietal association cortex.
C) temporal lobes.
D) primary motor cortex.
E) primary auditory cortex.

Question 36

Which of the following is a therapy for ischemic stroke, but only if given soon after the onset of symptoms?

A) infusion of free radicals into the affected brain region
B) administration of tPA to dissolve blood clots
C) drugs that inactivate GABA receptors
D) drugs that stimulate glutamate receptors
E) drugs that promote inflammatory reactions

Question 37

A thrombus

A) can be caused by infection in the heart.
B) is composed of debris that lodges in an artery.
C) can result in hemorrhagic stroke.
D) can consist of pieces of thrombi.
E) is a blood clot formed in a blood vessel.

Question 38

One surgical treatment for stroke, ___________________, is associated with an increased number of future strokes and the death rate following implantation is high.

A) use of carotid stents
B) carotid endarterectomy
C) atherosclerosis
D) sclerosis
E) angioplasty

Question 39

Hemorrhagic strokes cause brain damage by

A) exerting pressure on surrounding tissue.
B) decreasing the production of cerebrospinal fluid.
C) spreading infection throughout the brain.
D) increasing the production of cerebrospinal fluid.
E) inducing the release of GABA.

Question 40

When it comes to treatment of a stroke, _____________ helps prevent clotting and does not increase excitotoxicity.

A) tPA
B) 2-DG
C) MP
D) desmoteplase
E) phenobarbital

Question 41

In constraint-induced therapy, stroke patients

A) used their unaffected limbs to accomplish physical tasks.
B) experienced long-term improvement in the patients' ability to use their impaired arms.
C) did not improve in their ability to use the impaired limb.
D) experienced a weakening in the constrained arms over time.
E) were able to use their unaffected limb for daily tasks.

Question 42

A key pathway through which alcohol disrupts normal brain development is by interfering with

A) enzymes that break down cell wastes.
B) the conversion of phenylalanine into tyrosine.
C) the processes that terminate the formation of new neurons.
D) a protein that helps guide neuronal growth in the developing brain.
E) the function of glial membrane sodium-potassium transporters.

Question 43

If a pregnant woman has phenylketonuria

A) the mother must follow a strict diet to safeguard her own brain, but the fetus will be unaffected.
B) the mother must follow a strict diet for the brain development of herself and for the fetus.
C) the mother must follow a strict diet for the fetus to be unaffected, but eating phenylalanine will not likely affect her.
D) the pregnancy will not come to term.
E) neurofibrillary tangles that develop at about 4 years of age.

Question 44

The brain of an individual with Down syndrome would be expected to differ from that of a brain of a normal individual in that

A) the superior temporal gyrus is larger in the left hemisphere of the Down syndrome brain.
B) the frontal lobes are larger in the Down syndrome brain.
C) the Down syndrome brain is 10% heavier than the normal brain.
D) the Down syndrome brain has simpler and smaller gyri and sulci.
E) the superior temporal gyrus is larger in the right hemisphere of the Down syndrome brain.

Question 45

This type of TBI is a neurodegenerative injury from repeated brain trauma, often seen in athletes.

A) coup injury
B) coup-countrecoup injury
C) chronic traumatic encephalopathy
D) mild traumatic brain injury
E) contusion

Question 46

Untreated __________________ results in damage to cerebral white matter, the thalamus, and the cerebellum.

A) pyridoxine dependency
B) Down syndrome
C) galactosemia
D) phenylketonuria
E) Tay-Sachs disease

Question 47

Mouse models of Down syndrome suggest that _____________ of ____________ may impair hippocampal synaptic plasticity and associated learning and memory.

A) overactivity; glutamate
B) overactivity; GABA
C) underactivity; glutamate
D) underactivity; GABA
E) overactivity; dopamine

Question 48

A key sign that a child born to a mother who consumed alcohol during the pregnancy suffers from fetal alcohol syndrome involves

A) brain swelling.
B) an immature immune system.
C) abnormal facial development.
D) deficient muscle development.
E) an enlarged skull in the affected infant.

Question 49

Which of the following is true of Down syndrome (DS)?

A) The brains of DS people are approximately 10 percent lighter than those of normal people.
B) A DS person may be exceptionally talented in a particular area in spite of general mental retardation.
C) People with DS have no distinguishing physical characteristics.
D) People with DS often fail to learn to talk.
E) The incidence of DS is 1 in 10,000 in the United States.

Question 50

A baby that has fetal alcohol syndrome would be expected to

A) be smaller than average in size.
B) have abnormal reflexes.
C) have a very large head.
D) be hyperactive.
E) develop more rapidly than his or her normal peers.

Question 51

Atherosclerosis involves

A) the movement of thrombi across the blood-brain barrier.
B) a buildup of plaque within glial cells.
C) surgery on the major brain blood vessels.
D) a buildup of plaque within arteries.
E) a shearing of the walls of arterial vessels.

Question 52

The most serious effect of fetal alcohol spectrum disorder is

A) an unusual facial appearance.
B) malformation of limbs.
C) impaired brain development.
D) that such babies are likely to develop alcoholism as adults.
E) exaggerated startle response.

Question 53

The term congenital refers to a

A) genetic metabolic error of the brain.
B) condition present at birth.
C) condition in which a fetus has both male and female internal reproductive structures.
D) neurological condition that appears during puberty.
E) condition that is inherited from the mother.

Question 54

Whether a fetus will be born with Down syndrome is related to

A) the age of the mother at the time of pregnancy.
B) the presence of specific amino acids in the mother's diet.
C) overexposure to toxins during pregnancy.
D) ingestion of drugs and alcohol by the father prior to conception.
E) the uterine environment during pregnancy.

Question 55

Brain development in a fetus whose mother contracted German measles early in the pregnancy is impaired because the rubella virus

A) alters chromosome number.
B) induces an error of metabolism within brain cells.
C) produces toxins that interfere with the chemical signals that control brain development.
D) deletes key enzymes within the brain.
E) alters neurotransmitter release in the neural tube.

Question 56

Tyra has phenylketonuria. Which of the following statements would be most accurate?

A) Tyra must be on a restricted diet low in phenylalanine for the remainder of her life.
B) Phenylalanine in Tyra's diet helps to myelinate axons.
C) Tyra can introduce phenylalanine into her diet as an adult.
D) Phenylketonuria results from a missing protein.
E) She will need a complete blood transfusion.

Question 57

Phenylketonuria is caused by

A) an inherited lack of an enzyme that produces tyrosine.
B) accumulation of waste products in the brain.
C) neurofibrillary tangles.
D) toxic chemicals released by a virus.
E) leakage from glutamate into the brain blood system.

Question 58

The mental retardation shown in Down syndrome is caused by

A) the absence of the 21st chromosome.
B) a buildup of waste products in the neurons of brain.
C) a genetic error involving a missing vital enzyme.
D) the presence of an extra 21st chromosome.
E) an inherited faulty gene.

Question 59

______________ is a metabolic disorder in which an infant requires larger-than-normal amounts of vitamin B6 to avoid neurological symptoms.

A) Parkinson's disease
B) Tay-Sachs disease
C) Phenylketonuria
D) Pyridoxine dependency
E) Huntington's chorea

Question 60

When the skull meets with blunt force trauma to the right side, the brain tissue will experience trauma as it meets the skull. This blow to the brain is known as

A) the coup.
B) the countrecoup.
C) closed-head injury.
D) open-head injury.
E) punch drunk syndrome.

Question 61

A key distinction is that Parkinson's disease ________, whereas Huntington's disease ________.

A) symptoms can be cured with drug treatment or surgery; symptoms can be treated with drugs
B) usually occurs in the twenties and thirties; almost always occurs in the fifties and sixties
C) is characterized by a poverty of movement; is characterized by uncontrollable ones
D) is a hereditary disorder; does not usually have genetic origins
E) symptoms cannot be treated; symptoms can be cured with drug treatment or surgery

Question 62

A genetic disorder caused by a mutation that produces a protein with toxic consequences would be classified as

A) a toxic gain of function.
B) recessive.
C) a toxic loss of function.
D) congenital.
E) degenerative.

Question 63

________ is caused by degeneration of dopamine-secreting neurons of the substantia nigra.

A) Encephalitis
B) Parkinson's disease
C) Kuru
D) Multiple sclerosis
E) Acute anterior poliomyelitis

Question 64

________ is a degenerative disorder involving a defective gene on chromosome 4 that results in jerky uncontrollable movements.

A) Down syndrome
B) Tay-Sachs disease
C) Meissner's syndrome
D) Huntington's disease
E) Parkinson's disease

Question 65

Loss of dopaminergic neurons and the associated decreased activation of the supplementary motor area result in

A) akinesia.
B) akinetopsia.
C) anomia.
D) ageusia.
E) atonia.

Question 66

Deep brain stimulation of the ________ can alleviate the symptoms of Parkinson's disease.

A) thalamus
B) putamen
C) basal ganglia
D) subthalamic nucleus
E) primary motor cortex

Question 67

A genetic disorder caused by a mutation that fails to produce a protein that is required for normal health would be classified as

A) a toxic gain of function.
B) recessive.
C) a toxic loss of function.
D) congenital.
E) degenerative.

Question 68

Which treatment has the best utility for Huntington's disease?

A) deep brain stimulation of the caudate
B) deep brain stimulation of the thalamus
C) lesioning the putamen
D) implantation of fetal caudate and putamen cells
E) there is no current treatment for Huntington's disease

Question 69

Surgical removal of the ________ can alleviate the symptoms of Parkinson's disease.

A) thalamus
B) putamen
C) basal ganglia
D) globus pallidus
E) primary motor cortex

Question 70

A unique genetic cause of Parkinson's disease has been traced to

A) a dominant mutation of a gene on chromosome 4.
B) overproduction of GABA within the caudate nucleus.
C) a recessive gene located on chromosome 8.
D) a loss of cholinergic neurons within the frontal cortex.
E) overproduction of dopamine within the basal ganglia.

Question 71

Which of the following statements about Parkinson's disease is accurate?

A) All dopamine neurons are affected by Parkinson's disease.
B) Dopamine neurons in the mesolimbic system are affected by Parkinson's disease.
C) If calcium is involved in regulating the spontaneous activity of dopamine cells, these cells are more affected by Parkinson's disease.
D) Parkinson's disease is reversible.
E) Parkinson's disease is not degenerative.

Question 72

_____________ is the current psychopharmacological treatment for amyotrophic lateral sclerosis.

A) Riluzole
B) Deprenyl
C) L-DOPA
D) interferon β
E) interferon α

Question 73

The standard drug treatment for Parkinson's disease is the daily administration of

A) d-amphetamine.
B) L-DOPA.
C) atropine.
D) haloperidol.
E) apomorphine.

Question 74

The specific cause for Huntington's disease may involve _______ that kills neurons.

A) inclusion bodies
B) elongated stretches of glutamine
C) suppression of apoptosis
D) excessive release of glutamate
E) loss of L-DOPA function

Question 75

A therapy for Parkinson's disease that alters MAO-B activity in nerve cells involves administration of

A) deprenyl.
B) paraquat.
C) haloperidol.
D) L-DOPA.
E) pimozide.

Question 76

Which of the following represents a therapy for Parkinson's disease?

A) daily administration of amphetamine or cocaine
B) administration of haloperidol
C) stereotaxically guided destruction of the internal division of the globus pallidus
D) daily administration of the insecticide paraquat
E) stereotaxically-guided destruction of the external division of the globus pallidus

Question 77

The principal output of the basal ganglia is from the

A) internal division of the globus pallidus.
B) internal capsule.
C) lateral caudate nucleus.
D) external division of the globus pallidus.
E) dorsal root ganglion.

Question 78

________ is associated with the consumption of tainted human flesh.

A) Kuru
B) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
C) Down syndrome
D) Phenylketonuria
E) Parkinson's disease

Question 79

The cause of Parkinson's disease has been traced to

A) overproduction of GABA within the caudate nucleus.
B) loss of cholinergic neurons within the frontal cortex.
C) overproduction of dopamine within the basal ganglia.
D) degeneration of dopamine neurons within the nigrostriatal system.
E) the presence of an extra 21st chromosome.

Question 80

Which of the following is true of transmissible spongiform encephalopathy (TSE)?

A) Down syndrome is a form of TSE.
B) In TSE, the ventricles are constricted.
C) PKU is a form of TSE that involves eating human flesh.
D) TSEs are caused by simple proteins termed prions.
E) Parkinson's disease is caused by eating human flesh.