Deck 2: Theories and Treatment of Abnormality

Question 1

Which of the following statements is true about the various structures of the brain?

A) The pons control arousal and attention to stimuli.
B) The medulla is important for attentiveness and the timing of sleep.
C) The cerebellum helps control breathing and reflexes.
D) The superior colliculus and inferior colliculus relay sensory information and control movement.

Answer 1

The superior colliculus and inferior colliculus relay sensory information and control movement.

Question 2

Which of the following neurotransmitters plays an important role in regulating emotional well-being and aggressive impulses?

A) Dopamine
B) Norepinephrine
C) Acetylcholine
D) Serotonin

Answer 2

Serotonin

Question 3

Degradation refers to the:

A) release of neurons into the synaptic gap.
B) reabsorption of the neurotransmitter into the initial neuron.
C) attachment of the neurotransmitter to a receptor.
D) release of an enzyme by the receiving neuron that breaks down the neurotransmitter into other biochemicals.

Answer 3

release of an enzyme by the receiving neuron that breaks down the neurotransmitter into other biochemicals.

Question 4

A _____ is a treatment, usually based on a theory of a disorder, that addresses the factors that theory says cause the disorder.

A) practice
B) modus operandi
C) therapy
D) hypothesis

Question 5

Cindy's mood has become increasingly unstable since her traffic accident. She often experiences bouts of aggression and fits of rage in reaction to the slightest provocation. At other times, she can be overly passive and fails to recognize direct threats. Most likely, damage has occurred in the _____ of Cindy's brain.

A) temporal lobe
B) limbic system
C) cerebellum
D) medulla

Question 6

Which of the following best defines a theory?

A) A theory is a set of ideas that relate only to observed behaviors.
B) A theory is a set of ideas that explains the causality of abnormality.
C) A theory is a set of ideas that bridges the gap between normal and abnormal behaviors.
D) A theory is a set of ideas that provides a framework for asking questions about a phenomenon and for gathering and interpreting information about that phenomenon.

Question 7

Which of the following statements is true of subcortical structures?

A) The thalamus directs incoming information from sense receptors to the cerebrum.
B) The hypothalamus is a large structure just above the thalamus that regulates instinctive behaviors.
C) The hippocampus is a part of the limbic system that plays a central role in emotions such as fear.
D) The amygdala is a structure of the limbic system that plays a role in memory.

Question 8

Which of the following statements is true about the diathesis-stress model of the development of disorders?

A) The vulnerability can be biological, psychological, or social, and a stressor causes the disorder to manifest.
B) An individual experiences a minimal amount of psychological and social stress that creates an atmosphere for the emergence of a disorder.
C) Biological factors and psychological factors interact and create social stressors that influence the disorder.
D) Psychological and social vulnerability are loosely associated with the disorder and biological factors are the main contributors to the disorder.

Question 9

Dopamine plays an important role in:

A) regulating sexual drive and emotional responses.
B) the functioning of muscle systems.
C) regulating pain and moods.
D) inhibiting aggression.

Question 10

Which of the following best describes the nature-nurture question of abnormality?

A) The nature-nurture question relies heavily on biological perspectives to address abnormal behaviors.
B) The nature-nurture question views abnormal behaviors exclusively from a sociological perspective.
C) The nature-nurture question integrates biological, psychological, and social approaches to abnormal behaviors.
D) The nature-nurture question rejects the idea that abnormality has multiple causes.

Question 11

Abnormality that involves eating, drinking, and sexual behaviors are the result of the dysfunction of the:

A) right frontal lobe.
B) cerebrum.
C) hypothalamus.
D) midbrain.

Question 12

Maria and her parents recently moved to a new state because her mother received a job transfer. Maria has had difficulty adjusting to her new school, and has been suffering from loss of appetite, irritability, and lack of interest in her usual activities. Assuming that Maria's behavior meets the criteria for abnormal behavior, which of the following would most likely be the best approach to explaining Maria's behavior?

A) Psychological approach
B) Nature-nurture approach
C) Personal approach
D) Biological approach

Question 13

The outer layer of the cerebrum is called the _____.

A) hippocampus
B) cerebral cortex
C) thalamus
D) limbic system

Question 14

The biological approach to abnormality focuses on all of the following causes of abnormality EXCEPT:

A) brain dysfunction.
B) genetic abnormalities.
C) biochemical imbalance.
D) poor physiological responses.

Question 15

A psychologist who applies a sociocultural approach to anxiety disorders would:

A) consider genetics as a possible explanation for anxiety.
B) consider the way cultural values or the social environment affect anxiety.
C) look for the causes of anxiety in people's beliefs, thought processes, life experiences, and relationships.
D) explain anxiety by taking into account a person's unconscious desires.

Question 16

The cerebral cortex is responsible for:

A) regulating sexual drive.
B) advanced thinking processes.
C) relaying messages to the brain.
D) impulse control.

Question 17

When the initial neuron releasing a neurotransmitter into the synapse reabsorbs some of the neurotransmitter and thereby decreases the amount of neurotransmitter left in the synapse, the process is called _____.

A) reuptake
B) degradation
C) blocking
D) carrying

Question 18

Which of the following statements is true regarding the different approaches to abnormality and the continuum model?

A) People who favor a sociocultural approach generally embrace the continuum model because they view psychological disorders as vastly different from normal functioning.
B) People who take a biological approach have traditionally accepted a continuum model of abnormality.
C) People who adopt a psychological approach have moved away from a continuum model of psychopathology in recent years.
D) Proponents of the sociocultural approach tend to view abnormal behaviors as understandable consequences of social stresses in people's lives.

Question 19

Neurotransmitters are released into the _____, the gap between synaptic terminals and adjacent neurons, and then bind to special _____, molecules on the membrane of adjacent neurons.

A) receptor; dendrites
B) synapse; receptors
C) synapse; axons
D) receptor; cell bodies

Question 20

Biochemicals that carry impulses from one neuron to another in the brain and in other parts of the nervous system are called _____.

A) hormones
B) neurotransmitters
C) electrical transmissions
D) synaptic responses

Question 21

Sandy was born with a small nose, protruding lips and tongue, and chromosome 21 was present in triplicate. Sandy was most likely born with _____.

A) Klinefelter syndrome
B) Down syndrome
C) Tay-Sachs disease
D) Fragile X syndrome

Question 22

The "master" gland is also known as the _____.

A) islets of Langerhans
B) Organ of Corti
C) adrenal gland
D) pituitary gland

Question 23

In the context of emotional responses, gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) plays an important role in _____.

A) anxiety
B) depression
C) anger
D) sadness

Question 24

A polygenic process:

A) refers to the multiple abnormal genes that interact to create a disorder.
B) results from the interaction between hormones and neurotransmitters.
C) creates the coded instructions for cells to perform certain functions.
D) controls the basic genetic transmission that occurs during conception.

Question 25

Which of the following statements is true about different drug therapies?

A) Phenothiazines, also known as atypical antipsychotics, are used to reduce hallucinations and delusions, and do not induce dangerous side effects.
B) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the most frequently used antidepressants which target both serotonin and norepinephrine.
C) Tricyclic antidepressants and the monoamine oxidase inhibitors are the newer classes of antidepressants.
D) SSRIs and SNRIs produce common side effects such as nausea, diarrhea, headaches, daytime sedation, sexual dysfunction, and agitation.

Question 26

Electroconvulsive therapy was originally designed to treat which mental disorder?

A) Obsessive-compulsive disorder
B) Panic disorder without agoraphobia
C) Generalized anxiety disorder
D) Schizophrenia

Question 27

When ingested, which of the following substances slows the reuptake process of norepinephrine?

A) Cocaine and heroin
B) Heroin and marijuana
C) Marijuana and amphetamines
D) Amphetamines and cocaine

Question 28

The pituitary gland is responsible for:

A) stabilizing mood and emotions.
B) controlling brain function and relaying messages.
C) regulating energy levels and managing aggression.
D) producing a variety of hormones and controlling the secretion of other endocrine glands.

Question 29

A _____ is a chemical that carries messages throughout the body, potentially affecting a person's moods, levels of energy, and reactions to stress.

A) hormone
B) degradation inhibitor
C) neuron
D) synapse

Question 30

Mark has difficulty managing his stress. His physician suspects that he has a dysregulated hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis. It is likely that Mark may later be diagnosed with a(n):

A) personality disorder.
B) depressive disorder.
C) adjustment disorder.
D) impulse control disorder.

Question 31

Which of the following is NOT true about the interactions between genes and the environment?

A) Genetic factors can influence the kinds of environments we choose.
B) The environment can act as a catalyst for a genetic tendency.
C) Environmental conditions can affect the expression of genes.
D) Personalities and interests are not reinforced by the environments we choose.

Question 32

Which of the following is NOT true about behavior genetics?

A) Behavior genetics is the study of the genetics of personality and abnormality.
B) Research in behavior genetics focuses primarily on twin studies.
C) Most disorders result from polygenic processes according to behavior genetics.
D) Behavior geneticists investigate the heritability of behaviors and behavioral tendencies.

Question 33

Which of the following is correct regarding chromosomes?

A) At conception, the fertilized embryo has 48 chromosomes, 24 from the female egg and 24 from the male sperm.
B) The mother of an embryo always contributes a Y chromosome and the father always contributes an X chromosome.
C) Down syndrome results when chromosome 21 is present in triplicate.
D) Chromosomes have no relationship to deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA).

Question 34

_____ is the study of heritable changes in the expression of genes without change in the gene sequence.

A) Molecular biology
B) Genetic engineering
C) Epigenetics
D) Molecular cloning

Question 35

A major class of anxiety-reducing drugs, _____, appears to reduce the symptoms of anxiety without interfering substantially with an individual's ability to function in daily life. Their most frequent use is as sleeping pills.

A) barbiturates
B) benzodiazepines
C) azapirones
D) beta-blockers

Question 36

Identical twins have _____ of their genes in common.

A) 25 percent
B) 50 percent
C) 75 percent
D) 100 percent

Question 37

Lithium is:

A) a rare metallic element found only in natural springs.
B) a safer treatment than anticonvulsants because it has fewer and milder side effects.
C) commonly used in the treatment of bipolar disorder.
D) very effective in reducing tardive dyskinesia.

Question 38

Which of the following statements is true of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)?

A) A current of 70 to 150 volts is passed through the brain for five seconds.
B) Patients are conscious when the brain seizure is induced.
C) Patients typically have a convulsion, which usually lasts 3 minutes or more.
D) The side effects of ECT involve confusion and memory loss.

Question 39

The research on epigenetic processes carried out by Michael Meany found that:

A) the behavior of mother rats toward their offspring influences the development of the pups' reactions to stress in adulthood.
B) the extent to which the mother rat grooms the pup in the first week of life is indirectly related to the release of certain hormones in the pup.
C) pups that are licked and groomed more tend to grow into adult rats that are more fearful and show less developed responses to stress.
D) the biological offspring of mothers who typically lick and groom less, when raised by mothers who lick and groom more, have less effective stress responses.

Question 40

When corticotrophin-release factor (CRF) travels from the hypothalamus to the pituitary, the pituitary releases the body's adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). The bloodstream carries ACTH to the adrenal gland and various other organs. This example illustrates the complex relationship between:

A) the pituitary gland and hormones.
B) hormones and the endocrine system.
C) the endocrine system and the pituitary gland.
D) the central nervous system and the endocrine system.

Question 41

What are the core principles of the behavioral approach?

A) Classical reinforcement and operant conditioning
B) Operant punishment and vicarious reinforcement
C) Classical conditioning and operant conditioning
D) Operant conditioning and latent learning

Question 42

Social learning theory posits that:

A) people learn behaviors by watching other people.
B) people learn as a direct result of rewards and punishments.
C) learning primarily occurs by observing random people.
D) learning occurs when two stimuli are paired together.

Question 43

Tracy always seemed to "forget" to do her weekly chores, despite many reminders by her mom and dad. Her parents decided to pay her $2 for each chore she completed by Sunday night each week. Which type of schedule did Tracy's parents put her on?

A) Continuous reinforcement schedule
B) Partial reinforcement schedule
C) Continuous punishment schedule
D) Partial punishment schedule

Question 44

When a learned behavior is eliminated, the process is called _____.

A) removal
B) extinction
C) disappearance
D) vanishing

Question 45

Which of the following is a criticism leveled against the biological approach to abnormality?

A) It often ignores the fact that environmental and psychological processes can affect biological functioning.
B) It argues that people prefer to deal with the issues in their lives that are contributing to their psychological problems rather than turn to drugs.
C) It seems to erase any blame or responsibility that might be put upon the sufferer of a disorder.
D) It forces people who suffer disorders to simply accept that they have a disease and obtain the appropriate treatment.

Question 46

Which of the following is NOT an example of a behavior learned through operant conditioning?

A) An adolescent washing the car hoping to get a curfew extension.
B) A person jumping back at the sight of a snake.
C) A prison inmate receiving tokens for good behavior.
D) An animal staying still to avoid an electric shock.

Question 47

Jerry, who can't sit still for a minute, sees his classmate, Mike, getting a sticker for sitting quietly in his seat. Jerry decides to stop fidgeting and begins to sit still in the hope of getting as sticker for his sticker collection. Which behavioral theory is in effect here?

A) Classical conditioning
B) Observational learning
C) Systematic desensitization therapy
D) Causal attribution

Question 48

Shaping behaviors by providing rewards for desired responses and punishments for undesired responses is known as _____.

A) classical conditioning
B) operant conditioning
C) respondent conditioning
D) avoidant conditioning

Question 49

When treating a patient with electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), approximately how many sessions are necessary?

A) 4 to 6 sessions
B) 5 to 7 sessions
C) 6 to 8 sessions
D) 6 to 12 sessions

Question 50

If a behavior is _____ reinforced, it is more difficult to extinguish.

A) negatively
B) partially
C) continuously
D) positively

Question 51

Behavioral theorists:

A) accept the idea that unconscious conflicts drive human behavior.
B) include biological factors as contributing to abnormal behaviors.
C) view maladaptive thinking patterns as the primary motivators for abnormal behaviors.
D) focus on the influence of reinforcement and punishment in producing behavior.

Question 52

A bee stung Leah while she was playing in the yard a few weeks ago. She now becomes panicky each time she goes out to play. In this example, the conditioned stimulus is _____.

A) the sting
B) playing outside
C) seeing the bee
D) feeling panicky

Question 53

Joe's favorite food is spaghetti. His mom always makes it for him on Friday night, but she does not like the way he slurps the spaghetti into his mouth. One Friday night, she attempted to change Joe's eating pattern. At dinner, she picked up her spoon and fork and began to roll the spaghetti. David, Joe's brother, used his fork and spoon as well. Susan, Joe's sister, also used her fork and spoon to roll her spaghetti. At first, Joe slurped the spaghetti into his mouth, but after a few minutes, he began to use his fork and spoon. In this example, Joe is _____.

A) shaping behaviors
B) modeling behaviors
C) reinforcing behaviors
D) acquiring behaviors

Question 54

Alexis was a sick child who made frequent visits to the hospital to get her shots. One day she and her mother drove past the hospital, and Alexis began to cry. She repeatedly said, "Mommy, I don't want to see the doctor." In this example, the conditioned stimulus would be _____.

A) the parking lot
B) the shot
C) the nurse
D) the hospital

Question 55

The procedure introduced by neurologist Antonio de Egas Moniz in 1935 in which the frontal lobes of the brain are severed from the lower centers of the brain is called:

A) partial lobectomy.
B) prefrontal lobotomy.
C) vagus nerve stimulation.
D) craniectomy.

Question 56

Today, psychosurgery:

A) is outlawed in the United States.
B) is only used for severe disorders that do not respond to other treatments.
C) is no longer controversial, as it formerly was.
D) is found to generally lack precision.

Question 57

Jessica had a car accident while crossing an icy bridge. She now maps out her routes to avoid traveling over bridges. This avoidance helps to reduce her anxiety. In this example, Jessica has developed a(n) _____.

A) unconditioned response
B) conditioned avoidance response
C) continuous reinforcement schedule
D) unconditioned avoidance response

Question 58

The law of effect suggests that:

A) the strength of the reward has no bearing on behaviors.
B) punishment has no impact on undesired behaviors.
C) behaviors followed by a reward are strengthened.
D) punishments are more effective than rewards.

Question 59

A procedure known as _____ exposes patients to frequent, high-intensity magnetic pulses that are focused on particular brain structures, whereas in the _____ procedure, electrodes are surgically implanted in specific areas of the brain.

A) repetitive transcranial magnetic stimulation; deep brain stimulation
B) deep brain stimulation; vagus nerve stimulation
C) vagus nerve stimulation; repetitive transcranial magnetic stimulation
D) deep brain stimulation; repetitive transcranial magnetic stimulation

Question 60

In Pavlov's experiment, the conditioned stimulus was:

A) the event that elicited the unlearned response.
B) the previously neutral stimulus.
C) a reinforcement that elicited the learned response.
D) the same as the unconditioned stimulus.

Question 61

The superego is responsible for:

A) regulating aggressive responses.
B) monitoring poor impulse controls.
C) storing rules and regulations of moral behaviors.
D) observing objects in the environment.

Question 62

Freud believed that _____ is a basic drive that motivates human behavior.

A) libido
B) the subconscious
C) catharsis
D) repression

Question 63

All of the following are limitations of behavioral theories EXCEPT that:

A) it is unclear how behavioral principles could account for some disorders, such as schizophrenia.
B) the development of normal and abnormal behaviors has been scientifically tested by behavioral theory hypotheses.
C) the complexity of human behaviors and the environmental experiences cannot be captured in laboratory studies.
D) behavioral theories do not recognize free will in people's behavior.

Question 64

Jamie is constantly saying, "I have no control over my emotions, and cannot help feeling certain feelings." This is an example of _____.

A) causal attributions
B) dysfunctional global assumptions
C) systematic desensitization
D) cognitive-behavioral therapy

Question 65

People who tend to hold dysfunctional assumptions often react to situations with all of the following EXCEPT:

A) irrational thoughts.
B) rational behaviors.
C) negative emotions.
D) irrational behaviors.

Question 66

The id operates by the:

A) reality principle.
B) morality principle.
C) conscience principle.
D) pleasure principle.

Question 67

Which structure seeks to gratify our wishes and needs in ways that are within the rules of society for their appropriate expression?

A) Id
B) Ego
C) Superego
D) Libido

Question 68

Repression is defined as:

A) inconsistent memories.
B) false memories.
C) motivated forgetting.
D) personal forgetfulness.

Question 69

Frank attends an evening class at the local community college. His stomach begins to growl when he gets hungry. He wants to leave class early and get dinner, but realizes that leaving would disrupt the class. Frank's realization is an example of his _____ at work.

A) id
B) ego
C) superego
D) unconscious

Question 70

Martha was distraught when she discovered her husband had been involved with another woman and the relationship produced a child. She constantly tries to understand why her husband cheated on her, thinking thoughts such as "I'm so stupid for not realizing what was going on," and, "I should have been more attentive to his needs." Which type of cognition is Martha most likely exhibiting?

A) Degradation
B) Causal attributions
C) Global assumptions
D) Catharsis

Question 71

Which of the following statements is true about systematic desensitization therapy?

A) It requires the client to first develop a hierarchy of feared stimuli and then learn appropriate responses to each of these stimuli, starting with the most feared stimulus.
B) It is an immediate and direct method for extinguishing anxiety responses to stimuli and maladaptive behavior.
C) It generally produces better results when the client is asked to experience the stimuli directly, that is, using the in vivo exposure method.
D) It is often combined with operant conditioning to develop a conditioned avoidance response.

Question 72

The three systems of the human psyche that regulate the libido are the:

A) personal unconscious, collective unconscious, and archetypes.
B) id, ego, and superego.
C) ego, unconscious, and subconscious.
D) aggressive drive, id, and the superego.

Question 73

Which of the following is NOT a goal of cognitive therapy?

A) Assist clients in identifying their irrational and maladaptive thoughts.
B) Teach clients to consider alternative ways of thinking.
C) Discourage clients from challenging their irrational or maladaptive thoughts.
D) Encourage clients to face their worst fears and recognize ways of coping.

Question 74

Cognitive techniques are often combined with behavioral techniques, in what is known as _____.

A) cognitive-behavioral therapy.
B) systematic desensitization therapy.
C) psychotherapy.
D) client-centered therapy.

Question 75

The psychodynamic perspective views abnormality as being influenced by:

A) unconscious processes.
B) an external locus of control.
C) learning and reinforcement.
D) collective experience.

Question 76

Cognitive theories focus on _____.

A) measurable behaviors
B) thoughts and beliefs
C) unconscious conflicts
D) relationships

Question 77

The broad beliefs we have about ourselves, our relationships, and the world, can be either positive and helpful to us, or negative and destructive. These broad beliefs are called _____.

A) global assumptions
B) universal assumptions
C) absolute assumptions
D) collective assumptions

Question 78

The psychoanalytic approach to personality and treatment of psychopathology was developed by _____.

A) Horney
B) Breuer
C) Charcot
D) Freud

Question 79

Which of the following is the greatest limitation of the cognitive theories?

A) Cognitive theories may seem comfortable or familiar to laypersons.
B) Cognitive theories seem attractive because they focus on an individual's thinking processes.
C) Cognitive theories are least likely to explain unwanted emotions, thoughts, and behaviors.
D) Cognitive theories have had difficulty proving that maladaptive cognitions precede and cause disorders rather than being the symptoms or consequences of the disorders.

Question 80

When Kathryn was visiting her grandmother one summer, a snake crawled on the front porch. Since then, Kathryn has been dreadfully afraid of snakes. Which technique would a behavioral therapist most likely use in this situation?

A) Modeling
B) Systematic desensitization
C) Operant conditioning
D) Reinforcement