Deck 2: The Process of Genetic Transmission

Question 1

The inherited material an infant receives from its parents is referred to as one's

A) ancestral characteristics.
B) genotype.
C) self-image.
D) phenotype.

Answer 1

genotype.

Question 2

The way in which your genetic makeup is expressed in observable or measurable characteristics is known as your

A) ancestral characteristics.
B) genotype.
C) self-image.
D) phenotype.

Answer 2

phenotype.

Question 3

Meiosis is

A) a process of cell replication.
B) a process of cell division.
C) unique to body cells such as those in the liver and lungs.
D) the process of chromosome combination.

Answer 3

a process of cell division.

Question 4

The expression of the genotype is

A) modified by a variety of environmental factors.
B) not modifiable regardless of environmental factors.
C) not of concern to psychologists.
D) only known if one undergoes a sex change operation.

Question 5

Each DNA molecule is capable of

A) reconstructing itself.
B) recreating a similar but not identical molecule.
C) synthesizing carbohydrates.
D) triggering mutations.

Question 6

An example of a phenotypic characteristic is

A) hair color.
B) the inheritance of the dominant gene for hemophilia.
C) to have a parent with type AB blood.
D) any characteristic that almost all members of a population share, such as the ability to walk upright.

Question 7

The likelihood that a man and a woman will produce two genetically identical children is

A) nearly impossible unless they have monozygotic twins.
B) nearly impossible unless they have dizygotic twins.
C) greater in some parts of the world than in others.
D) about 50%.

Question 8

Which of the following is a process that results in the production of diverse genetic combinations?

A) Meiosis
B) Mitosis
C) Intercourse
D) Autosomes

Question 9

Each ovum and each sperm contains

A) 23 pairs of chromosomes.
B) 23 chromosomes.
C) 46 chromosomes.
D) no chromosomes.

Question 10

Genes trigger the production of proteins

A) only at birth.
B) at regular intervals.
C) any time mitosis takes place.
D) when a particular change in the environment signals them to respond.

Question 11

Mitosis occurs

A) in both autosomes and sex chromosomes.
B) only in autosomes.
C) only in sex chromosomes.
D) only during the embryonic period.

Question 12

Crossing over occurs during

A) mitosis.
B) meiosis.
C) intercourse.
D) fertilization.

Question 13

The chromosomes contributed by the sperm are homologous to those contributed by the ovum, which means that the chromosomes contributed by the sperm

A) contain exactly the same information as those contributed by the egg.
B) are similar in shape and function to those contributed by the egg.
C) are in a different order than those contributed by the egg.
D) perform a different function than those contributed by the egg.

Question 14

DNA

A) is made up of nucleotides.
B) is contained inside genes.
C) is an autosome.
D) contains the bases thymine, adenine, cytosine, and guanine, which can all freely combine with each other.

Question 15

The structural substances that are synthesized as a result of genes are

A) carbohydrates.
B) fats.
C) proteins.
D) sugars.

Question 16

A situation in which one allele is considered to be dominant and the other allele is recessive occurs when an individual's chromosomes are

A) heterozygous.
B) homozygous.
C) codominant.
D) both heterozygous and homozygous.

Question 17

Alternative forms of a gene are known as

A) loci.
B) recessive.
C) heterozygous.
D) alleles.

Question 18

The smallest of all human cells is the

A) ovum.
B) sperm.
C) DNA.
D) neuron.

Question 19

The process by which equivalent sections of chromosomes randomly switch places is known as

A) chromosome switching.
B) crossing over.
C) DNA recombination.
D) gene splicing.

Question 20

If you carry a gene for a particular disorder, whether or not that gene becomes activated may depend on

A) hormones.
B) signals in the environment.
C) neurotransmitters in the brain.
D) mitosis.

Question 21

X-linked characteristics are more common in males than in females because

A) males receive no counteracting gene from the father.
B) the Y chromosome is really a modifier gene.
C) male hormones trigger the release of X-linked characteristics.
D) they are uniquely male.

Question 22

Through studying the history of sickle-cell anemia, one is able to

A) understand the functioning of mutator genes.
B) gain an understanding of how genetic and environmental factors interact.
C) describe the onset and the elimination of a genetic disorder.
D) recognize that the same characteristics of a disorder are present in both the heterozygous and homozygous state.

Question 23

You and your spouse are expecting your first baby and are wondering who your baby is going to look like. You have curly, dark hair (homozygous), while your spouse has light-colored straight hair. The phenotype for your child will be

A) curly, light-colored hair.
B) straight, dark hair.
C) curly, dark hair.
D) light-colored, straight hair.

Question 24

The increased lifespan in recent years of individuals with Down syndrome can be attributed to

A) greater understanding of the genetic implications of the disorder.
B) advances in the treatment of health complications associated with Down syndrome.
C) a decrease in the institutionalization of individuals with Down syndrome.
D) earlier detection of the disorder, which can result in a reduction of various symptoms of the disorder.

Question 25

You have a sister who is a carrier for hemophilia, yet she has normally clotting blood. If she had children, who is most likely to be affected with this disorder?

A) Her female children are more likely to be affected.
B) None of her children will be affected.
C) Any male children will have the disorder.
D) A male child will most likely have the disorder unless he receives a gene for normally clotting blood from his father.

Question 26

Which of the following statements regarding Turner syndrome is INCORRECT?

A) The absence of secondary sex characteristics can be remedied through the application of female hormones.
B) With the successful use of female hormones, sterility is no longer a complication.
C) Girls with Turner syndrome are socially immature and lacking in assertiveness.
D) Webbed necks and unusually shaped mouths and ears are often present.

Question 27

Klinefelter syndrome manifests itself in

A) males.
B) females
C) males and females.
D) only in infancy.

Question 28

Cataracts are an example of a trait that is influenced by a dominant gene and by

A) chromosomal abnormalities.
B) sex chromosomes.
C) phenotype.
D) modifier genes.

Question 29

Which of the following statements is true regarding sex chromosomes?

A) The Y chromosome is longer than the X chromosome.
B) The Y chromosome contains some genes not found on the X chromosome.
C) There are some genes on the X chromosome that have no equivalent on the Y chromosome.
D) The X and Y chromosomes differ in shape, but are the same size.

Question 30

Most serious deleterious alleles are

A) dominant.
B) codominant.
C) recessive.
D) no longer a part of the gene pool.

Question 31

A characteristic such as genius that results from two parents of average intelligence is influenced by

A) heterozygotes.
B) autosomes.
C) gene interactions.
D) hybrid genes.

Question 32

If you carry alleles for blood type AB+, those alleles are

A) recessive.
B) dominant.
C) codominant.
D) homozygous.

Question 33

Most cases of Turner syndrome result from

A) an abnormal sperm.
B) an abnormal ovum.
C) failure of a chromosome to split during meiosis.
D) gene interactions.

Question 34

You have just discovered that your newborn baby has PKU. What should you expect concerning your child's treatment for this disorder?

A) There is no treatment for this disorder.
B) Dietary intervention beginning at birth that eliminates phenylalanine
C) Administering phenylalaninate at birth
D) Dietary intervention when the baby begins eating solid foods

Question 35

Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of girls with triple-X syndrome?

A) Normal secondary sexual development
B) Normal physical appearance
C) Impairments in short-term memory
D) Abnormal secondary sexual development

Question 36

Down syndrome is generally a result of an abnormality of

A) the autosomes.
B) the Y chromosome.
C) chromosome 21.
D) amniotic fluid.

Question 37

The sickle-cell trait is said to have had survival value because it is associated with

A) individuals who are physically stronger.
B) a resistance to tuberculosis.
C) individuals who can function with less oxygen.
D) a resistance to malarial infection.

Question 38

Which of the following statements regarding Down syndrome is true?

A) The extra chromosome usually comes from the father.
B) Young women are more likely than older women to have a child with Down syndrome.
C) The age of the father is unrelated to the incidence of Down syndrome.
D) The failure of the chromosome to separate occurs more frequently in older women than younger ones.

Question 39

Phenylketonuria (PKU) results from

A) the inability to metabolize phenylalanine.
B) the inability to tolerate milk.
C) a decrease of phenylpyruvic acid in the body.
D) an excess of enzymes necessary to metabolize proteins.

Question 40

The chromosome structure for Turner syndrome is

A) XXX.
B) XXY.
C) XX.
D) XO.

Question 41

Gene therapy involves

A) the provision of therapy to those with genetic disorders.
B) the prevention of meiosis from occurring in defective chromosomes.
C) inserting normal alleles into patients' cells in order to compensate for defective ones.
D) the removal defective genes.

Question 42

The risks associated with amniocentesis include

A) cognitive deficits after birth.
B) miscarriage.
C) chronic pain for the mother.
D) limb deformities in the fetus.

Question 43

A women who had her uterus removed during a hysterectomy may be able to have some of her eggs extracted and frozen prior to the surgery. What technique would such a women be likely to request when she would like to have a child?

A) In vitro fertilization using a surrogate mother
B) In vitro fertilization using donated sperm
C) Amniocentesis
D) Embryo cloning

Question 44

Which of the following statements is true regarding diversity in the phenotypic expression of genetic disorders?

A) Environmental factors, such as the degree to which one has a supportive environment, impact upon the phenotypical expression of the genotype.
B) Environmental factors play little or no role in the phenotypical expression of genetic disorders.
C) Environmental factors impact upon all types of genetic disorders equally.
D) Environmental factors can prevent the onset of a disorder, but cannot modify the severity and symptoms of a disorder.

Question 45

Which of the following is NOT an ethical concern regarding new reproductive technologies?

A) The limitations and legal rights of sperm donors to know the children conceived with their sperm
B) Whether or not a surrogate mother has the right to keep the child she agreed to have for another couple
C) Controversy surrounding the genetic abnormalities frequently caused by conceiving children through in vitro fertilization
D) Whether extra embryos not used during in vitro fertilization should be used for research

Question 46

Your company would like to begin genetic testing when screening for potential employees in order to know a person's risk for developing diseases such as cancer and heart disease. A valid argument against the use of these tests would be that

A) the field of genetics has not advanced enough to be able to determine a person's risk for any type of disorder.
B) genetic tests are painful and can cause physical damage to the person being tested.
C) genetic testing is very expensive and would not be cost-effective.
D) there is no way to be certain that someone would develop a disorder because some individuals who have the genes associated with a disorder may not develop that disorder.

Question 47

Chorionic villi sampling is a procedure that

A) can be administered at the ninth or tenth week of pregnancy, considerably earlier than amniocentesis.
B) removes cells from the amniotic fluid for biopsy during the early months of pregnancy.
C) is typically performed at 16 weeks, considerably later than amniocentesis.
D) is typically done just before birth to detect any complications.

Question 48

Your cousin has an immune system disorder and doctors inserted genes into her blood which would help her to produce enzymes that she previously lacked. These genes were probably inserted into her blood

A) with viruses.
B) with bacteria
C) by ingesting a pill.
D) through surgery.

Question 49

Which of the following is true of the options available to a couple who are thinking about starting a family but who are concerned about passing onto their children genetic disorders which run in their family?

A) Adoption is probably the best option in order for the couple to be certain they do not pass on any disorders to their children.
B) Preventive genetic counseling can allow them to be tested for defective genes before they conceive a child.
C) Ethical controversies surrounding genetic counseling have made these procedures illegal in most states.
D) Most genetic disorders can be prevented through early detection.

Question 50

A problem associated with the alphafetoprotein (AFP) assay is

A) a high rate of false positive results.
B) a high rate of false negative results.
C) the inability to detect risk for Down syndrome.
D) harm to the developing fetus.

Question 51

The cause of mental retardation due to a narrowing of parts of the X chromosome is

A) Down syndrome.
B) Fragile X syndrome.
C) Klinefelter syndrome.
D) Turner syndrome.

Question 52

Amniocentesis is a procedure that

A) is done during the delivery, to remove excess fluid from the amniotic sac.
B) is typically performed around the ninth month of pregnancy.
C) is done during pregnancy by removing fluid from the amniotic sac to identify genetic or developmental anomalies.
D) can be done at an earlier time than other prenatal tests.

Question 53

have found

A) a genetic marker for depression.
B) a gene that prevents the antisocial behavior.
C) individuals who carry a set of genes associated with antisocial behavior only develop problems when they are exposed to particular environmental stressors.
D) that the genes for depression and antisocial behavior are impossible to map.

Question 54

Why would the ultrasound technique be associated with ethical problems?

A) Ultrasounds can be harmful to the developing fetus.
B) Ultrasounds are associated with a higher rate of abortion in some cultures where male babies are preferred over female babies.
C) Ultrasounds are related to increased anxiety during pregnancy.
D) Mothers will change their behavior and be less concerned about their health when they know the gender of their baby.

Question 55

One of the more difficult tasks of the Human Genome Project is

A) identifying genes on the Y chromosome.
B) determining interactions among multiple genes.
C) identifying genes on chromosome 21.
D) identifying diseases caused by single genes.

Question 56

In which of the following situations would in vitro fertilization not be recommended?

A) When a husband is unable to produce sperm
B) When a husband produces an insufficient supply of sperm
C) When a husband's sperm is not able to fertilize the wife's egg
D) When a woman cannot produce an egg

Question 57

Women who have frequent ultrasounds during pregnancy

A) feel more anxiety as the pregnancy progresses.
B) feel less anxiety as the pregnancy progresses.
C) are unlikely to suffer from any birth complications.
D) have increased risk of miscarriage.

Question 58

For which of the following diseases has a genetic marker been identified?

A) Infertility
B) PKU
C) Cerebral palsy
D) Huntington disease

Question 59

Prenatal cells can be used

A) to look for the presence of genetic markers of particular disorders.
B) to remove genetic abnormalities.
C) only to look for the presence of physical abnormalities visible under a microscope, such as the presence of an extra chromosome.
D) to look for the presence of maternal hormones.

Question 60

Which of the following conclusions can be correctly drawn from our current understanding of XYY and XXY men?

A) XYY and XXY men are violent and assaultive individuals.
B) XYY than XXY men have female characteristics.
C) XYY and XXY men tend to be shorter than XY men.
D) XYY men are no more aggressive than XY men.

Question 61

The tendency for development to be genetically restricted to a few pathways which can only be deflected by an intense environmental push is a description of

A) canalization.
B) a discontinuous process.
C) differentiation.
D) range of reaction.

Question 62

A behavior geneticist conducted a study comparing the political values of identical and fraternal twins. He found that both sets of twins were equally similar in their political values. What can the researcher infer?

A) Political values are more strongly influenced by genetics than by the environment.
B) Political values are more strongly influenced by the environment than by the genetics.
C) Neither genetics nor the environment plays a role in political values.
D) The results are inconclusive as to whether genetics or the environment influences political values.

Question 63

Which type of genetic-environmental interaction includes the idea that parents with certain genetic predispositions create a home environment that suits the inherited predispositions of the child?

A) Passive
B) Evocative
C) Active
D) Niche picking

Question 64

In Gottlieb's developmental systems view, an individual's genes are part of an overall system and the expression of those genes

A) is dependent only on the configuration of other genes in the system.
B) becomes fixed during infancy.
C) is predetermined by the genetic code.
D) is affected by events at other levels of the system.

Question 65

Which of the following is the focus of behavior geneticists?

A) The biochemical basis of behavior
B) Genetic mechanisms
C) Genetic relatedness
D) Reproductive processes

Question 66

Babbling is an example of a process that is _________, while intelligence is __________ .

A) highly canalized; not highly canalized
B) not highly canalized; highly canalized
C) genetically determined; environmentally determined
D) learned; innate

Question 67

The statement that children influence their parents is most comparable to which type of genetic-environmental interaction?

A) Passive
B) Evocative
C) Active
D) Niche picking

Question 68

The research finding that shows certain behavioral genotypes to be more strongly shown in adolescence than in childhood supports the idea of

A) range of reaction.
B) canalization.
C) niche picking.
D) reactive processes.

Question 69

While you were growing up, your parents often preferred staying at home on the weekends, watching television, and reading, over socializing with others outside the family. You had a tendency to be shy and introverted, so you also enjoyed these types of activities and continued these activities even as an adult. This is an example of

A) passive genetic-environmental interaction.
B) evocative genetic-environmental interaction.
C) active genetic-environmental interaction.
D) parent to child genetic-environmental interaction.

Question 70

When Robert is placed in an enriched environment, he flourishes and learns very quickly. When he is placed in a deprived environment he shows signs of severe developmental delays. Robert is said to have a wide

A) canalization.
B) range of reaction.
C) genetic propensity.
D) potentiality.

Question 71

Researchers can infer that a trait is largely influenced by genes if

A) identical twins show more resemblance in the trait than fraternal twins.
B) fraternal twins show more resemblance in the trait than identical twins.
C) children are more similar to their adoptive parents than their biological parents.
D) identical twins do not show any resemblance to each other in the trait.

Question 72

Niche picking refers to

A) children relying on their parents to build a stimulating environment for them.
B) children and adults being actively involved in identifying and/or creating an environment they find responsive and stimulating.
C) parents following their children's innate cues in building appropriately stimulating environments.
D) biological predispositions for traits seen in certain geographical areas.

Question 73

Twins who are created by the separation of the zygote following fertilization of a single egg by a single sperm are known as

A) monozygotic.
B) dizygotic.
C) fraternal.
D) mutants.

Question 74

The process whereby the genetic factors set boundaries on an individual's possible responses to the environment is known as

A) predetermination.
B) discontinuity.
C) differentiation.
D) range of reaction.

Question 75

When behavior geneticists conduct adoption studies, they usually compare the characteristics of adopted children to those of

A) their biological siblings reared elsewhere.
B) other adopted children.
C) their adopted and biological parents.
D) children in other families who were not adopted.

Question 76

The primary concern for human behavior geneticists is

A) identifying single genes that cause changes in behavior.
B) understanding chromosomal errors that contribute to gross developmental deviations.
C) identifying the genetic material involved in transmitting personality characteristics.
D) understanding genetic contributions to the variations in individual differences found throughout the human lifespan.

Question 77

Two infants are adopted by a family. They are the same age and are adopted at the same time but are not biologically related. Research supports which of the following statements?

A) They will be treated very differently by their parents even though they live in the same house.
B) The two will have similar personalities because they share a similar environment.
C) They would be more likely to have similar characteristics during early and middle childhood but will probably become less similar in adolescence due to niche picking.
D) They will be very similar during adolescence because the environment will have strongly influenced their personalities.

Question 78

Behavior geneticists conducting family resemblance studies most frequently employ

A) kinship studies.
B) sibling studies.
C) adoption and twin studies.
D) parent-child studies.

Question 79

Which of the following is a misconception about the study of behavior genetics?

A) Both genetic factors and environmental factors influence a child's potential.
B) Evidence that suggests a strong genetic effect on a characteristic also indicates that environmental influences are not important.
C) Genes affect both static characteristics and developmental changes.
D) Genetics can influence development at any stage of the lifespan.

Question 80

A fetus who is exposed to the virus that causes German measles will develop damaged hearing

A) only if exposed at a particular stage during prenatal development.
B) if exposed to the virus at any point while it is in the womb.
C) only if the fetus carries a gene that puts him or her at risk for hearing loss.
D) only if the mother is also malnourished.