Deck 31: Assisting in Dermatology

Question 1

Which highly contagious disorder is caused by streptococci and characterized by itchy vesicles and pustules?

A) Impetigo
B) Eczema
C) Scabies
D) Psoriasis

Answer 1

Impetigo

Question 2

A blister is called a

A) macule.
B) papule.
C) bulla.
D) pustule.

Answer 2

bulla.

Question 3

A raised lesion is called a

A) macule.
B) papule.
C) fissure.

Answer 3

papule.

Question 4

The part of the integumentary system that contains fat as a stored energy source is the

A) sebaceous glands.
B) epidermis.
C) dermis.
D) subcutaneous layer.

Question 5

What major preventive action can patients take to prevent malignant neoplasms?

A) Use tanning beds rather than direct sun.
B) Use lotions with a high SPF.
C) Refrain from picking at acne lesions.
D) Avoid direct contact with infected individuals.

Question 6

Antipruritics would be useful in treating which of the following conditions?

A) Acne
B) Herpes zoster
C) Macules
D) Nail fungus

Question 7

Redness of the skin is called

A) cyanosis.
B) jaundice.
C) ecchymosis.
D) erythema.
E) pruritus.

Question 8

Which highly contagious disorder is caused by a parasite?

A) Impetigo
B) Eczema
C) Scabies
D) Psoriasis

Question 9

___________ causes a yellow discoloration of the skin.

A) Cyanosis
B) Jaundice
C) Ecchymosis
D) Erythema
E) Pruritus

Question 10

A freckle is called a

A) macule.
B) papule.
C) bulla.
D) pustule.

Question 11

Samantha Trace is diagnosed with tinea unguium. What term describes the condition of her nails?

A) Leukodermaon
B) Keratin
C) Opaque
D) Ecchymotic

Question 12

Why is the dermal layer sometimes referred to as the "true skin"?

A) It is the outer layer that is visible to others.
B) It comprises the largest percentage of total skin mass.
C) It provides the body with protection from dehydration.
D) It contains the substance that gives the skin its distinctive color.

Question 13

What is one of the principal functions of the subcutaneous layer of the skin?

A) It provides insulation for the body.
B) It produces oil to soften and protect the skin.
C) It houses the sweat glands that function as temperature regulators.
D) It synthesizes vitamin D.

Question 14

Which is not an appropriate action when treating frostbite?

A) Using a heat source of up to 105° F
B) Taking time to monitor vital signs periodically during treatment
C) Warming the area with an external, even heat source
D) Gently rubbing the affected area

Question 15

Which of the following is not considered one of the three layers of the integumentary system?

A) Epidermis
B) Dermis
C) Hair papilla
D) Subcutaneous

Question 16

A procedure in which revolving wire brushes or sandpaper is used to remove superficial scars is called

A) exacerbation.
B) dermabrasion.
C) electrodessication.
D) cryosurgery.

Question 17

Which type of lesion is a sign of a partial-thickness burn?

A) Pustule
B) Bulla
C) Ulcer
D) Wheal

Question 18

The medical term for itching is

A) cyanosis.
B) jaundice.
C) ecchymosis.
D) erythema.
E) pruritus.

Question 19

Which statement does not describe a result of a full-thickness burn?

A) Severe pain immediately after the injury
B) The need for skin grafting
C) The danger of infection
D) Damage to all skin layers

Question 20

All of the following statements are true about herpes zoster except it

A) can be prevented in adults over age 60 with Zostavax.
B) can cause chronic pain.
C) appears as a vesicular, erythemic, pruritic, papular rash.
D) affects bilateral nerve dermatomes.

Question 21

Which of the following is true about the Mohs technique?

A) It increases the possibility of keloid formation.
B) It is recommended for the removal of severe acne scars.
C) It uses photothermolysis to remove pigmented areas.
D) It is used to remove cancerous skin lesions layer by layer to minimize the chance of regrowth.

Question 22

Which of the following layers of skin is often referred to as the "true skin"?

A) Epidermis
B) Dermis
C) Subcutaneous layer
D) All of the above

Question 23

Rhinophyma may develop in which of the following?

A) Children with impetigo
B) Men with rosacea
C) Patients with acne conglobate
D) Patients with severe cystic acne

Question 24

A patient with scabies may have which of the following signs of infestation?

A) Excoriation of surrounding tissue
B) Keloid formation at infestation sites
C) Furuncle development
D) Systemic erysipelas

Question 25

Which of the following methods is used when an entire mole is removed for examination under a microscope?

A) Excision biopsy
B) Punch biopsy
C) Shave biopsy
D) All of the above

Question 26

Which of the following is an acute inflammatory disorder characterized by painful vesicular eruptions on the trunk of the body and occasionally on the face?

A) Herpes simplex
B) Herpes zoster
C) Verrucae
D) All of the above

Question 27

Which of the following neoplasms of the skin is most serious because of its tendency to metastasize?

A) Nevi
B) Malignant melanoma
C) Squamous cell carcinoma
D) Basal cell carcinoma

Question 28

Which of the following is a fungal infection of the toenails and fingernails?

A) Tinea unguium
B) Tinea pedis
C) Tinea cruris
D) Tinea corporis

Question 29

Zostavax is recommended for which of the following patients?

A) Infants 12 to 18 months old
B) Older adults who have never had shingles
C) All adults over age 60, regardless of whether they have had shingles
D) Any age group that has not had chickenpox

Question 30

Which of the following are considered secondary lesions?

A) Macules
B) Plaques
C) Ulcerations
D) Cysts

Question 31

Pediculosis can be caused by which of the following?

A) Pediculus humanus capitis
B) Pediculus humanus corporis
C) Pthirus pubis
D) All of the above

Question 32

Which of the following is a skin disease that tends to occur in patients with a family history of allergies?

A) Eczema
B) Contact dermatitis
C) Seborrheic dermatitis
D) Psoriasis

Question 33

Furuncles and carbuncles may be treated with which of the following?

A) Frequent cleansing of the area
B) Application of an antibiotic ointment
C) Surgical incision and drainage
D) All of the above

Question 34

Tabitha Anderson is scheduled for skin testing next week. What is an important part of the preparation for this procedure?

A) The procedure should be performed before the physician gets to the office to see patients for the day.
B) The patient should continue to take antihistamines to prevent a serious response to allergens.
C) The patient should stop taking all antihistamines or allergy medication 3 to 10 days before testing.

Question 35

Which area is favored in young children for a percutaneous test?

A) Forearm
B) Upper arm
C) Back
D) All of the above

Question 36

When interpreting a skin test, the presence of pseudopods may be read as a

A) 1.
B) 2.
C) 3.
D) 4.

Question 37

The dermis contains which of the following?

A) Collagen and elastin
B) Sebaceous and exocrine glands
C) Keratinocytes and melanocytes
D) Fat cells and nerves
E) Both A and B

Question 38

Which of the following is caused by an inflammation of the skin that is associated with an allergic response?

A) Systemic lupus erythematosus
B) Seborrhea
C) Psoriasis
D) Eczema

Question 39

A patient diagnosed with herpes simplex may be prescribed which of the following medications?

A) Prednisone
B) Valtrex
C) Bacitracin topical
D) Keflex

Question 40

Full-thickness thermal injury is also referred to as

A) first degree burn.
B) second degree burn.
C) third degree burn.
D) superficial burn.

Question 41

An increase in the number of healthy cells is called __________.

Question 42

Joseph Falzone, age 73, has been diagnosed with squamous cell carcinoma. The physician is concerned that Mr. Falzone is not aware of the many warning signs of cancer. She asks you to give the patient a handout detailing the warning signs for which he should look. Summarize the warning signs of cancer that should be included in the material.

Question 43

The physician orders a series of diagnostic tests to determine the stage of the tumor.

Question 44

Which of the following is(are) caused by staphylococci or streptococci? (Select all that apply.)

A) Mycotic infections
B) Cellulitis
C) Furuncle
D) Acne vulgaris
E) Impetigo

Question 45

Small, purple, hemorrhagic patches on the skin that are frequently associated with bleeding disorders or liver disease are called __________.

Question 46

Which of the following tests is used to detect delayed allergic reactions associated with contact dermatitis?

A) Percutaneous test
B) Patch test
C) Interdermal test
D) Radioallergosorbent test

Question 47

You are interviewing a patient about a rash covering her arms and chest. List four questions that would help you gather as much detail as possible about the patient's skin problem.

Question 48

Cells that are in a primitive form and are diagnostic of a cancer-producing tumor are called __________.

Question 49

A patient scheduled for allergy skin tests should continue to take prescription antihistamines before the procedure to limit a dangerous allergic reaction.

Question 50

__________ is the medical term for devitalized skin that forms a scab or dry crust over a burn area.

Question 51

Patients with metastases have distant spread of a cancerous tumor.

Question 52

The medical term for a partial or complete lack of hair is __________.

Question 53

A benign tumor shows anaplastic changes.

Question 54

Charese Blackman, age 28, was seen in the office today for removal of a malignant melanoma. The physician wants to make sure Ms. Blackman is aware of the changes in a mole that might indicate another problem. Explain the ABCDE rule to her.

Question 55

Herpes zoster can cause long-term pain after the skin inflammation has resolved; this condition is called ______________.

Question 56

__________ is a multiorgan, chronic, autoimmune inflammatory disease that affects connective tissue throughout the body.

Question 57

Charlie Feaver, age 3, was seen in the office today for superficial and partial-thickness burns on his chest and diaper area. He pulled a pot of hot soup off the stove, and it splattered down the front of his body. What information should you reinforce with Charlie's parents about the care of his burns?

Question 58

Which of the following therapies may be used for the removal of fine lines and wrinkles, pigmented areas, shallow scars, and tattoos?

A) Laser resurfacing
B) Dermabrasion
C) Chemical peel
D) Botox injections

Question 59

Grading of a tumor requires a pathologic assessment of the level of cellular differentiation.

Question 60

Benign tumors invade the basement membrane of surrounding tissues.

Question 61

A fissure is an example of a primary lesion of the skin.

Question 62

Denavir is a topical antiviral used to treat cellulitis.

Question 63

Cryosurgery frequently is used to treat verrucae.

Question 64

Skin testing on young children is typically done on both forearms.

Question 65

As a person ages, the dermal layer becomes thinner and less protective.

Question 66

A wound that heals well with little evidence of scar formation is called a keloid.

Question 67

Chemical exfoliation may cause an increased level of photophobia.

Question 68

Streptococcal impetigo, if left untreated, may result in glomerulonephritis.

Question 69

In cryosurgery, extremely hot temperatures are used to destroy the treated tissue.

Question 70

A wheal forming at the site of a skin test indicates an allergic reaction to the serum.

Question 71

A child diagnosed with eczema frequently has excoriation at the site of the inflammation.

Question 72

Keratin is a protective protein found in the dermal layer of the skin.

Question 73

Scratch allergy testing is limited to no more than 20 allergens because of the danger of an anaphylactic reaction.

Question 74

Rhinophyma is a serious complication of rosacea that is due to hyperplasia of nasal tissue.

Question 75

A patient with vitiligo has a problem with uniform skin pigmentation.

Question 76

The RAST blood tests are primarily used to determine food allergies.

Question 77

Patients should remain in the office for at least 15 minutes after the completion of skin testing for observation for adverse reactions to the procedure.

Question 78

The use of oral contraceptives, such as Ortho Tri-Cyclen and Estrostep, may reduce acne outbreaks.

Question 79

Acne conglobata is a cystic form of acne that typically occurs in adolescent patients.

Question 80

A patient experiencing an exacerbation of disease symptoms is finally cycling through a period of relief from the most challenging symptoms of the disease.