Deck 9: Pharmacology of Alterations in Body Defences

Question 1

A client asks, "Why does the infection in my finger make it so red?" What is the nurse's best response?
1) "When you have an infection, your body sends more blood to the area."
2) "Your blood vessels in that area are leaky."
3) "You don't get rid of fluid as quickly when you are sick, so you develop a fluid overload."
4) "Lymph drainage from your fingers is delayed because of distance from the heart.

Answer 1

1

Question 2

The nurse has explained the process of phagocytosis to a client with an infected wound. He asks the nurse why these cells do not eat good cells as well? How should the nurse respond?
1) "They do, but there are not enough phagocytic cells to kill enough good cells to make a person sick."
2) "The cells migrate to the infection before they start killing other cells."
3) "They don't eat good cells because of a process called chemotaxis."
4) "These cells can tell the difference between cells from the person's body and foreign cells."

Answer 2

4

Question 3

A client is prescribed an antihistamine for an allergic reaction. The client asks, "Why am I getting this? What is a histamine anyway?" How can the nurse most accurately describe the action of histamine in the body?
1) "Histamine causes your blood vessels to dilate and leak. That is why you are swollen and itchy."
2) "Histamine stimulates production of the clotting parts of your blood. That is why you are blotchy."
3) "Histamine stimulates production of white blood cells to fight off infection. That is why you feel flushed."
4) "Histamine stimulates production of the red cells of your blood. That is why you are red."

Answer 3

1

Question 4

Which cells of the nonspecific body defence are phagocytic? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected.
Standard Text: Select all that apply.
1) Mast cells
2) Macrophages
3) Dendritic cells
4) Neutrophils
5) Eosinophils

Question 5

A client has been stung by a bee. The site is warm, red, and swollen. Which agent does the nurse suspect to be the cause?
1) Histamine
2) Leukotrienes
3) Complement
4) Prostaglandins

Question 6

During assessment of a client's infection site, the nurse determines that the site is warm to the touch. How should the nurse explain this warmth to the client?
1) "Infection causes fluid overload in your body, so the infected site gets warm and red."
2) "Your lymphatic system has shut down to keep the infection from spreading, so the site gets warm and red."
3) "The little vessels around your infection are leaking, so the area gets warm and red."
4) "Your body is sending extra blood and white cells to the site to fight the infection."

Question 7

A client scheduled to undergo a lymph node biopsy asks, "If lymph nodes are so prone to cancer, why don't they just take them all out?" How should the nurse respond? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected.
Standard Text: Select all that apply.
1) "Lymph nodes filter out all kinds of debris and are essential to our good health."
2) "The surgeon will probably take out a majority of the nodes in the region where the biopsy will be done."
3) "The cells that are in the lymph nodes actually help protect us from cancer."
4) "The lymph nodes make up one of our best defences against infection."
5) "They usually do take out all the lymph nodes if the client has lymphoma."

Question 8

A client says, "The doctor says I have a problem with the fluid in my lymph system backing up. Where does lymph fluid come from?" How should the nurse respond?
1) "Lymph is a byproduct of the production of urine."
2) "Lymph fluid is made in your stomach from the fluid you drink."
3) "Lymph fluid comes from the liquid part of your blood."
4) "Lymph is created in your lungs from the water you breathe in with air."

Question 9

A client asks, "Why does my leg swell when I have an infection?" How should the nurse respond?
1) "The fever from your infection causes you to drink more, and you become fluid overloaded."
2) "The infection causes the little vessels in your leg to become leaky, and fluid seeps out of your blood."
3) "The infection causes your lymphatic system to get blocked up so it doesn't drain."
4) "When you have an infection, more blood goes to your leg, causing it to swell."

Question 10

A client is prescribed ibuprofen for pain. The nurse is aware that this drug is designed to target which inflammatory mediator to reduce pain?
1) Histamine
2) Leukotrienes
3) Complement
4) Prostaglandins

Question 11

A client with a disorder of the plasma cells has a deficiency in which part of the immune system?
1) Antigens that produce a diffuse immune response
2) Monocytes that are found in an exudate
3) Activated B lymphocytes that produce immunoglobulins specific to an antigen
4) Macrophages that devour bacteria

Question 12

The infection control (IC) nurse has completed teaching newly hired nurses about the innate body defence. Which statements by one of the participants would indicate the need for further instruction? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected.
Standard Text: Select all that apply.
1) "Fever is one of the process barriers we can expect our clients to demonstrate."
2) "Complement is a component of the adaptive immune response."
3) "I should try to keep my client's skin and mucous membranes intact."
4) "Dendritic cells are part of the nervous system involved in keeping the immune system strong."
5) "Phagocytes are cells that kill invading bacteria."

Question 13

A key aspect of the specific immune system is:
1) recognition of common bacterial receptors.
2) complement.
3) memory.
4) phagocytes.

Question 14

The newly licensed nurse tells her clinical educator, "I thought that interferons were medications, but I heard the doctor tell my client that his interferons were suppressed." How should the educator respond? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected.
Standard Text: Select all that apply.
1) "Interferons are proteins produced in the body."
2) "Interferons can be produced to use as medications to fight cancer."
3) "The doctor probably said your client's immune system was depressed."
4) "Interferons help to stimulate other cells of the immune system."
5) "Interferons made by the body are the same as natural killer cells."

Question 15

Which option reflects a key aspect of the nonspecific body defence?
1) Recognition of antigens
2) Inflammation
3) Systemic response
4) Antibodies

Question 16

Activation of the humoral immune system by an antigen results in the production of which substance?
1) Immunoglobulins (antibodies) specific for the antigen
2) Macrophages specific for the immunogen
3) Sensitized T lymphocytes
4) Sensitized natural killer (NK) cells

Question 17

The school nurse is speaking to a group of children in middle school about preventing infection. How can the nurse best explain why it is so important for the children to keep from injuring their skin? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected.
Standard Text: Select all that apply.
1) "Your skin cells are packed together tightly to keep germs out. If you disrupt that barrier, germs can get into your body."
2) "The sweat on your skin discourages germ growth. You don't want to damage the cells that produce sweat."
3) "You shed skin cells all the time, along with the germs on the skin."
4) "If you damage the skin's outer layer, it will never grow back as strong."
5) "The deep layers of your skin have special cells that eat germs."

Question 18

Which properties are common to both the cell-mediated and humoral immune systems? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected.
Standard Text: Select all that apply.
1) Recognition of common pathogenic features in bacterial cell walls
2) Both depend on the response of helper T cells.
3) Memory: the ability to mount a more rapid attack on a foreign antigen because of previous exposure
4) Specificity: the ability to react with molecules bearing a specific marker
5) Both react in the same way regardless of the nature of the offending agent.

Question 19

What is the purpose of the normal flora of the skin?
1) They control pathogens by competing with them for nutrients and space.
2) They phagocytize pathogens.
3) They secrete substances that kill pathogens.
4) They makes the skin more acidic during times of stress, which discourages pathogen growth.

Question 20

A client has been diagnosed with cancer. The nurse plans an assessment based on the awareness that cancer can spread through which component of the lymphatic system?
1) Lymph vessels
2) Tonsils
3) Thymus gland
4) Spleen

Question 21

Which interferons have the greatest clinical utility?
1) Gamma interferons
2) Alpha interferons
3) Beta interferons
4) Mu interferons

Question 22

The nurse is explaining to a nursing student that allograft transplant clients need some form of immunosuppressant therapy. Which statement describes the pathophysiological reasoning behind this?
1) The treatment is indicated only if signs of transplant rejection are present.
2) The treatment is a precaution; rejection in allografts seldom occurs.
3) The treatment is designed to target chronic rejection, which does not occur for several weeks.
4) Despite accurate tissue matching, allografts contain antigens that trigger the client's immune response.

Question 23

Cyclosporine (Sandimmune) and tacrolimus (Prograf) represent which category of immunosuppressants?
1) Calcineurin inhibitors
2) Glucocorticoids
3) Antimetabolites
4) Antibodies

Question 24

A client has been prescribed immunosuppressant medication. Which nursing diagnoses would the nurse include in this client's care plan? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected.
Standard Text: Select all that apply.
1) Social Isolation
2) Infection, Risk for
3) Nutrition, Imbalanced: Less than Body Requirements
4) Gas Exchange, Impaired
5) Caregiver Role Strain

Question 25

A nurse caring for a client who has been on cyclosporine for six months following a renal allograft. The client states that he has noted that his urine output has decreased over the last two weeks. Which problem might the nurse suspect in this situation?
1) Metabolic acidosis
2) Metastatic carcinoma
3) An anaphylactic reaction
4) Cyclosporine side effects

Question 26

The nurse preparing to administer the initial dose of an immunosuppressant agent for a client recovering from organ transplantation would make certain that screening has been performed to rule out:
1) Electrolyte imbalance.
2) Cardiomegaly.
3) Anemia.
4) Infectious processes.

Question 27

A student nurse is caring for a client receiving interferon alpha -2b for the treatment of hepatitis C. Which of the following changes in her client's condition does she recognize as a serious effect of interferon treatment?
1) BP of 100/56
2) GCS of 12
3) CRP of 2.5mg/L
4) K+ 5.0

Question 28

MCSA Students have just completed their module on the immune system. A quiz at the end of the class asks the following question. Which is the next step in the inflammatory response after the release of inflammation mediators?
1) Vascular permeability (edema)
2) Stimulation of nerve endings (pain)
3) Vasodilation (redness, heat)
4) Thrombosis (clots)

Question 29

A client will be taking interferon alfa-2b (Intron A) as treatment for hairy cell leukemia. Which common adverse effects does the nurse advise the client on? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected.
Standard Text: Select all that apply.
1) Nausea
2) Fever
3) Dizziness
4) Headache
5) Rash

Question 30

The cells of the immune system secrete substances that mediate the immune response that are called:
1) Antigens.
2) Masts.
3) Cytokines.
4) Antibodies.

Question 31

The nurse demonstrates understanding of the appropriate use of immunostimulant therapy by anticipating its use in the client with which disorder?
1) Exophthalmus
2) Gout
3) Cancer
4) Rheumatoid arthritis

Question 32

The nurse is teaching a course in pathophysiology. The students understood the material correctly if they identify which options as properties of interferons? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected.
Standard Text: Select all that apply.
1) Antifungal
2) Antiviral
3) Anti-inflammatory
4) Antineoplastic
5) Antibiotic

Question 33

The nurse demonstrates understanding of the appropriate use of immunosuppressant therapy by anticipating its use in the client with which disorder?
1) Gout
2) Exophthalmus
3) Rheumatoid arthritis
4) Cancer

Question 34

The nursing student correctly identifies what advantage of cyclosporine for the prevention of allograft rejection?
1) Increases white blood cell count
2) Can be administered subcutaneously
3) Decreases the risk of infection
4) Is less harmful to bone marrow

Question 35

A client is being given cytokines to stimulate the immune system. What response should the nurse expect from this drug? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected.
Standard Text: Select all that apply.
1) Some cytokines will kill foreign organisms in the body.
2) The client's inflammatory response will be stimulated.
3) The client's immune system will be taken over by the cytokines.
4) The client's lymphatic system will shut down.
5) There will be fewer white blood cells in the client's blood.

Question 36

Which of the following provides the nurse with evidence that additional teaching is necessary for the client taking cyclosporine?
1) Taking it with milk.
2) Taking it while eating fish
3) Taking it with grapefruit juice.
4) Taking it while eating leafy green vegetables.

Question 37

The nurse is establishing outcomes for a client with rheumatoid arthritis. What would be an appropriate outcome following three days of immunosuppressant therapy?
1) Decreased serum calcium
2) Reduced joint inflammation
3) Increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate
4) Increased white cell count

Question 38

Methylprednisolone is added to a client's therapeutic regimen. Which effects would the nurse expect if the drug is taken long term? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected.
Standard Text: Select all that apply.
1) Hyperglycemia
2) Fluid retention
3) Hypotension
4) Osteoporosis
5) Renal failure

Question 39

A client is scheduled for kidney transplantation using an allograft. Which instruction should the nurse provide? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected.
Standard Text: Select all that apply.
1) "You will be monitored for acute rejection for the first 48 hours."
2) "If your system has not rejected the kidney within 2 weeks of surgery, you will be out of danger."
3) "You will take antirejection medication for at least several months after surgery."
4) "You are in danger of developing chronic rejection for years after your surgery."
5) "Rejection usually occurs immediately after surgery, generally before the client gets out of the recovery room."

Question 40

The health care providers and nurses caring for a group of clients with cancer have instituted a strict nutritional program with the goal of stimulating the clients' natural killer cells. How do these cells work? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected.
Standard Text: Select all that apply.
1) They phagocytize cancer cells.
2) The cells secrete chemical toxins that kill cancer cells.
3) They help to enhance inflammation.
4) They protect noncancerous cells from attack by viruses that cause cancer.
5) They modulate the adaptive immune response.

Question 41

Active immunity is a response to exposure to what substance?
1) Allergens
2) Immunoglobulins
3) A true pathogen
4) Antigens

Question 42

A new parent has just brought her infant son in for his first immunization. What would the nurse teach the parent about common adverse effects?
1) Cough and runny nose
2) Pain, swelling, and redness at injection sites
3) Fever of 40°C or greater
4) Development of a full-body rash

Question 43

The nurse teaches nursing students that to maintain immunity, the booster for tetanus prevention should be given to adults at what intervals?
1) 5 years
2) 8 years
3) 10 years
4) 15 years

Question 44

In which client should the hepatitis B vaccine be withheld?
1) A client with anemia
2) A client with arthritis
3) A client with hypertension
4) A client with an active infection

Question 45

Which statement is true regarding active immunity?
1) Only active immunity processes respond to antigens.
2) Once acquired, active immunity lasts for the life of the host.
3) Active immunity occurs in response to a pathogen.
4) Most individuals are born with active immunity.

Question 46

From which sources can passive immunity be acquired? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected.
Standard Text: Select all that apply.
1) Immunoglobulin
2) Maternal antibodies
3) Immunizations
4) Inoculation
5) Blood transfusions

Question 47

Once the inflammation process is initiated, which process causes edema of the surrounding tissues?
1) Vasodilation.
2) Vascular permeability.
3) Cellular infiltration.
4) Thrombosis.

Question 48

MCSA Student nurses are writing their final exam, which of the following answers do they identify as the correct response to this question. Of the following immunosuppressants, which one is a cytotoxic, pregnancy category X?
1) Basiliximab (Simulect)
2) Tacrolimus (Prograf,
3) Oprelvekin (Neumega)
4) Thalidomide (Thalomid)

Question 49

The nurse would expect antibodies for passive immunity to be administered in which situations? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected.
Standard Text: Select all that apply.
1) The client is at great risk for exposure.
2) The initial immunization failed.
3) The client has already been exposed to a virulent pathogen.
4) The client has undergone bone marrow transplant.
5) There is not sufficient time to develop active immunity.

Question 50

What is the term used to describe the placement of a foreign substance on or in an individual for the purpose of disease prevention?
1) Eradication
2) Incubation
3) Immunity
4) Vaccination

Question 51

A client who is going to Africa requires vaccination against hepatitis A. How should the nurse schedule the three injections needed for this vaccination?
1) Give 2 doses 6-12 months apart.
2) Give 2 doses 2 months apart.
3) Give 3 doses 2 months apart.
4) Give 3 doses within 9 months.

Question 52

Which schedule for an MMR vaccine is correct?
1) 5 and 10 months
2) 15 and 18 months
3) 1, 8, 13, and 18 to 20 months
4) 12 to 15 months and 18 months

Question 53

The mother asks the nurse why the human papillomavirus vaccine (Gardasil) is administered at age 11 or 12 rather than earlier, as with other vaccines. What is the most accurate response by the nurse?
1) "The vaccine requires the onset of puberty to be effective."
2) "Other vaccines must be given first to establish immunity, upon which this immunization is based."
3) "The virus is spread by sexual contact, which may begin during the teen years."
4) "There are too many side effects if given too early."

Question 54

The nurse would expect RhoGAM to be administered to which client?
1) A client at 28 weeks' gestation
2) A client undergoing kidney transplant
3) An HIV-positive client
4) An immunosuppressed client

Question 55

The nursing student questions the faculty member regarding the need to obtain a hepatitis B titre. The faculty member is correct in saying that the purpose of a titre is to measure which component of immunity?
1) The degree of risk for future infections
2) The amount of vaccine present in the bloodstream
3) The amount of antibodies in the bloodstream
4) The amount of antigen in the bloodstream

Question 56

The community health nurse is teaching health promotion classes to new parents. The most recent class was on vaccinations and their schedules. What response by a parent indicates understanding of the correct time for vaccinating for pertussis?
1) "I will get my infant immunized for pertussis at 2 months".
2) "My child will be immunized for pertussis at 5 years of age".
3) "When my child is 2 years old he will get his pertussis vaccine".
4) "My child will get their first pertussis vaccine at 15 months

Question 57

What is the goal of active immunity?
1) Prevention of illness
2) Augmentation of the allergic response
3) Reduction of disease symptoms
4) Completion of the process of passive immunity

Question 58

As a result of vaccination, what cells are formed?
1) Immunoglobulins
2) Alpha and beta
3) Antigens
4) B and T cells

Question 59

The mother asks the nurse why her child must have three doses of a certain vaccine over the next few months. Which response by the nurse is correct?
1) "Multiple doses are given over time to allow the development of full immunity."
2) "The drug level must be high enough to prevent disease."
3) "It is prophylactic because not all parents get the immunizations at the correct time."
4) "We are not certain, but more doses have proven to be more effective."

Question 60

A nurse has administered a DTaP immunization to a 2-month-old infant. What does the nurse teach the parent regarding which diseases this vaccination covers? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected.
Standard Text: Select all that apply.
1) Diptheria
2) Tetanus
3) Varicella
4) Pertussis
5) Hepatitis A

Question 61

MCSA Nursing students are teaching their peers on drugs used to treat fever and inflammation. What do the students include as the mechanism of action of antipyretics?
1) Direct action on the pituitary and peripheral vasodilation
2) Direct action on the hypothalamus and increase in vascular permeability.
3) Direct action on the hypothalamus and peripheral vasodilation
4) Direct action on the hypothalamus and peripheral vasoconstriction.

Question 62

A client has been admitted with possible aspirin overdose. Which finding should the nurse be alert for in this client?
1) Metabolic alkalosis
2) Respiratory acidosis
3) Hypoventilation
4) Tinnitus

Question 63

A client has been admitted to the medical-surgical unit for pain evaluation. The client has arthritis and has been taking ibuprofen for many years to help alleviate the pain. What is the most important assessment for this client?
1) Respiratory auscultation to rule out congestion
2) Reviewing renal laboratory studies
3) A complete blood count (CBC) with differential to monitor for infection
4) An electrocardiogram for possible cardiomyopathy

Question 64

A 3-year-old is admitted to the paediatric unit with a traumatic injury to the right forearm. The mother has given the child aspirin at home to control the pain. She tells the nurse that her son had an upper respiratory infection about 3 weeks ago. What is the nurse's best response when the mother asks why the physician ordered acetaminophen instead of aspirin?
1) "Acetaminophen has better anti-inflammatory properties than aspirin."
2) "Acetaminophen is given to children for pain due to the risk of Reye's syndrome."
3) "I really do not know, but I am certain the health care provider has a good reason."
4) "Acetaminophen does not have to be given as often to control your child's symptoms."

Question 65

Which of the following substances do salicylates inhibit the synthesis of?
1) Pyrogens
2) Superoxide radicals
3) Histamines
4) Prostaglandins

Question 66

A client presents to the emergency department with influenza-like symptoms. The nurse assesses the client's medication history and finds that the client has been taking ibuprofen for arthritic pain. Warfarin (Coumadin) was recently prescribed due to a diagnosis of atrial fibrillation. What is the nurse's rationale for immediately discussing this finding with the health care provider?
1) If taken with NSAID medications, warfarin can cause a cause ulcers in the oral mucosa.
2) Oral anticoagulants taken with ibuprofen can increase the risk of bleeding.
3) Taking ibuprofen and warfarin at the same time decreases the client's immune response.
4) Ibuprofen is contraindicated for patients who have influenza-like symptoms.

Question 67

Last week, a client was advised to drink fluids, rest, and take aspirin to minimize symptoms of a head cold. Today the client calls the clinic and reports dizziness, nausea, and "a strange buzzing sound in my head." How should the nurse respond? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected.
Standard Text: Select all that apply.
1) "Are you having difficulty hearing?"
2) "You should increase your fluid intake."
3) "Come to the clinic today."
4) "Take an additional aspirin with each dose."
5) "Are you allergic to aspirin?"

Question 68

A client has been prescribed acetaminophen and has been instructed by the nurse not to take any over-the-counter (OTC) cough or cold medications without first checking with the health care provider or pharmacist. What is the rationale for this instruction?
1) There could be an increased risk for bleeding in the stomach and within other organs of the body.
2) Cough medications and other OTC drugs could contain acetaminophen, so inadvertent overdose could occur.
3) There is an increased risk for Reye's syndrome.
4) No one should be taking more than one medication for pain.

Question 69

MCSA A student nurse is working at an allergy clinic and is caring for a young child newly diagnosed with hay fever. The nurse at the clinic asks the student to tell her how the classification of drugs normally ordered for hay fever work. What is the best response by the student?
1) "The drugs work by blocking histamine-1 receptors in the smooth muscle."
2) "Inhibit prostaglandins that promote inflammation."
3) "This classification works by inhibiting Histamine-2 receptors in smooth muscle."
4) "Inhibits mast cell formation."

Question 70

MCSA A client is in hospital after having his gall bladder removed. He has been on long term acetaminophen for pain management as he is unable to take NSAIDS. Which of the following assessment findings would the nurse report to the health care provider?
1) BUN of 4.5 mmol/L
2) ALT of 72 u/L
3) Platelets of 250 x 10-9
4) Hgb of 12.4 g/L

Question 71

The nurse is instructing the parents of a young child on appropriate dosing of acetaminophen. Which instruction should the nurse include? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected.
Standard Text: Select all that apply.
1) "Use the dosage cup that comes with the acetaminophen to measure the dosage."
2) "If you use an eyedropper to draw up the dose out of the bottle, it is not so sticky and messy."
3) "If you already have acetaminophen pills at home, you can crush one up and put it in juice."
4) "If you lose this medication cup, use a cereal spoonful to measure the dose."
5) "Your pharmacist may be able to supply a calibrated dosing spoon you can use for this medication."

Question 72

MCSA Nursing students are completing their module on the pharmacology of inflammation, fever and allergies. The students are asked to differentiate between an H-1, and H-2 receptor blocker.
What answer by a student indicates the need for further instruction?
1) H-2 receptors are not used for vertigo or motion sickness.
2) H-2 receptors are usually found in vascular smooth muscle
3) H-1 receptor blockers are frequently ordered for allergy
4) Second generation H-1 blockers have less sedative qualities.

Question 73

Which instructions should be included as part of medication teaching for a client who has been started on a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected.
Standard Text: Select all that apply.
1) "Take this medication at least 2 hours after eating."
2) "Be watchful for a yellow, grainy material if you vomit."
3) "If you start experiencing light-headedness, call the office for instructions."
4) "You should avoid alcohol while taking this medication."
5) "You will know that you are taking enough of the drug when your stools take on a dark colour."

Question 74

A client has been admitted with signs of inflammation following a fall from a bike, and has been ordered an NSAID for treatment? Which assessment findings would the nurse most likely assess in this client?
1) Pain, fever, and tremors
2) Fever, change in level of consciousness, and tremors
3) Pain, irritability, and change in level of consciousness
4) Fever, aches and pains, and lethargy

Question 75

A person being seen at a health fair says, "I hurt my foot running last week and have been taking aspirin for the pain. Is that okay?" Which questions should the nurse ask before answering this question? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected.
Standard Text: Select all that apply.
1) "How old are you?"
2) "Do you smoke?"
3) "Do you take vitamin C?"
4) "Have you ever been told you have a gastric ulcer?"
5) "Are you of Hispanic heritage?"

Question 76

Occasionally, acute inflammation is initiated by a rapid, massive release of inflammatory chemical mediators. What is this condition referred as?
1) Chemotaxis.
2) Activation of Hageman factor.
3) Phagocytosis.
4) Anaphylaxis.

Question 77

Student nurses have completed their pathophysiology class on inflammation. A quiz at the end of class asks the students to identify the chemical mediators of inflammation. Which of the following is considered a correct response? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected.
Standard Text: Select all that apply.
1) Mast cells
2) Complement
3) Cyclooxygenase
4) Histamine
5) Leukotrines

Question 78

Both aspirin and ibuprofen products inhibit which process in the body?
1) Histamine production
2) Platelet production
3) Cytokine IL-1 synthesis
4) Cyclooxygenase (COX) synthesis