Your patient is a 38-year-old female with a history of Crohn's disease. She is conscious and alert and complaining of abdominal pain. She describes a one-week history of increasingly diffuse, crampy abdominal pain. She also states that she has had nausea and vomiting, fever, and diarrhea the past two days. Physical examination reveals that her skin is warm and dry and that her abdomen is tender to palpation in all quadrants with no masses or distension noted. HR = 100, BP = 118/78, RR = 14, SaO₂ = 99%. Which of the following treatments is appropriate in the prehospital management of this patient?

Question

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

Based on the patient's symptoms of nausea and vomiting, antiemetics would be the most appropriate prehospital treatment for this patient. Diphenydramine is an antihistamine and would not address the patient's abdominal pain and other symptoms. Ketorolac is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), which can cause GI irritation and is contraindicated in patients with GI bleeding, such as this patient with Crohn's disease. Methylprednisolone is a steroid and would be more appropriate for management of a Crohn's disease flare-up rather than the current acute symptoms.

Your Patient Is a 38-Year-Old Female with a History of Crohn's