Your patient is a 32-year-old female who is alert but in significant distress, complaining of a migraine. She has a history of migraines, describes a gradual onset of headache this morning, and is now experiencing nausea and intense throbbing pain behind her temples. She is lying on a couch in a dim room and keeps her eyes closed while talking to you in a low voice. HR = 100, BP = 148/100, RR = 12, SaO2 = 99%. Which of the following is most appropriate in the prehospital management of this patient?
A) Morphine sulfate, IV in 2 mg increments, up to 10 mg
B) NTG SL, 0.4 mg, up to 3 tablets or a diastolic blood pressure of 80 mmHg
C) A calm, quiet environment and dim lights
D) Lorazepam, 2 mg
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q7: Your patient states that he often experiences
Q8: Which of the following is a risk
Q9: Which of the following is caused by
Q10: A series of two or more generalized
Q11: Which of the following should be suspected
Q13: Your patient is a 24-year-old male who
Q14: You suspect your patient is experiencing a
Q15: You should most highly suspect that a
Q16: A seizure that begins as an electrical
Q17: You are transporting a male patient to
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents