Your patient is a 50-year-old motorcyclist who received a lateral impact from an automobile as he went through an intersection. He has an open right tibia/fibula fracture. He also has a fracture of his left forearm and some abrasions. He was wearing a helmet and suffered no loss of consciousness. He currently has a strong radial pulse of 100, his skin is warm and moist, and he has adequate respirations at 20 per minute. Assuming no significant findings during a rapid trauma exam and intact distal neurovascular status, which of the following is the best way to manage this patient's lower extremity trauma?

Question

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

Based on the patient's presentation and the assumption that there are no significant findings during a rapid trauma exam, the best way to manage this patient's lower extremity trauma is to apply padded long board splints laterally and medially. This will help stabilize the fracture and prevent any further damage or injury during transport to the hospital. The use of anatomical splinting provided by placing the patient on a long backboard is not as effective as it does not provide the same level of stability and support as padded long board splints. Applying PASG may increase the risk of complications and is not typically used for open fractures. A traction splint may be used in some cases, but would not be the best choice for this patient as it could exacerbate the open fracture and cause further damage.

Your Patient Is a 50-Year-Old Motorcyclist Who Received a Lateral