You have just examined a 78-year-old male patient new to your practice who recently moved to your area.He states he has a positive history of previous atrial fibrillation for the past 2 years.He does not have valvular disease atrial fibrillation to his knowledge and is otherwise healthy for his age,except for hypertension.Based on this information alone,what would be your preferred manner of treating this patient to reduce his stroke risk?
A) The patient would begin daily administration of aspirin.
B) The patient should begin heparin therapy and add warfarin.
C) The patient would begin daily administration of warfarin.
D) The patient is not at risk for a stroke,so no therapy is indicated at this time.
E) Give a loading dose of warfarin,then begin 5 mg daily.
Correct Answer:
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