A 70-year-old female with osteoporosis fractures her leg at a location of preexisting abnormality. She reports that the fracture occurred following a minor fall. Which of the following best describes the fracture?

Question

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

The fracture in this scenario is likely a pathological fracture, which occurs as a result of weakened or diseased bone. Osteoporosis is a common cause of pathological fractures, and the fact that this fracture occurred at a site of preexisting abnormality further supports this diagnosis. An idiopathic fracture would have no clear cause, an iatrogenic fracture would be caused by a medical intervention, and a greenstick fracture typically occurs in children due to the flexibility of their bones.

A 70-Year-Old Female with Osteoporosis Fractures Her Leg at a Location