A 60-year-old male presents with gastrointestinal bleeding and abdominal pain. He reports that he takes nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents (NSAIDs) daily to prevent heart attack. Tests reveal that he has a peptic ulcer. The most likely cause of this disease is: A) decreasing subepithelial bicarbonate production. B) accelerating the H⁺ (proton) pump in parietal cells. C) inhibiting mucosal prostaglandin synthesis. D) stimulating a shunt of mucosal blood flow.

Question

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

NSAIDs inhibit the production of prostaglandins, which are responsible for protecting the stomach lining from the effects of stomach acid. This inhibition increases the risk of peptic ulcers.

A 60-Year-Old Male Presents with Gastrointestinal Bleeding and Abdominal Pain