A 45-year-old male is diagnosed with sideroblastic anemia. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this disease?
A) Ineffective iron uptake and hemoglobin production
B) Misshapen erythrocytes
C) Decreased levels of tissue iron
D) Premature erythrocyte destruction

Question

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

Sideroblastic anemia is caused by ineffective iron uptake and hemoglobin production, leading to iron accumulation in the mitochondria of erythroblasts. This results in abnormal iron-containing ringed sideroblasts in the bone marrow and decreased levels of functional red blood cells.

A 45-Year-Old Male Is Diagnosed with Sideroblastic Anemia