Which of the following statements concerning no-fault divorce laws is true?

Question

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Under no-fault divorce laws, divorce may be granted on the basis of "irreconcilable differences," which means that neither spouse has to prove that the other was to blame for the end of the marriage. This was a major departure from traditional fault-based divorce laws, which required one partner to prove that the other had committed some wrongdoing (such as adultery or cruelty) in order to obtain a divorce. Incompatibility is also a valid reason for divorce under no-fault laws, which further emphasizes the importance of allowing couples to dissolve their marriages without having to assign blame or prove fault.

Which of the Following Statements Concerning No-Fault Divorce Laws Is