If an X- linked disorder is lethal to the affected individual prior to the age at which one reaches reproductive maturation,the lethality will be expressed only in males.Why is this so?
A)Because it's sex- limited inheritance,females do not demonstrate the phenotype.
B)The only sources of the lethal allele in the population are heterozygous females who are "carriers" and do not express the disorder.
C)At the cellular level,the protein will work less well in the male's cells.
D)As it's a lethal allele,it will kill the homozygous recessive first.These are the males.
E)This is not true.We will see the lethality in females as well.

Question

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

X-linked disorders are carried on the X chromosome. Males have only one X chromosome, so if they inherit an X-linked lethal allele, they will express the disorder because they lack a second X chromosome that could potentially carry a healthy allele. Females, on the other hand, have two X chromosomes, so a female with one lethal allele (heterozygous) does not express the disorder because the healthy allele on her other X chromosome can compensate. This is why the lethality of such disorders before reproductive maturity is typically observed only in males, as females can be carriers without expressing the disorder.

If an X- Linked Disorder Is Lethal to the Affected