Which of the following does not explain why the U.S.economy has been more stable after 1946 than before?
A)A large government sector.
B)A shift from manufacturing to services.
C)Automatic stabilizers.
D)A laissez faire approach.

Question

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

The laissez faire approach, which advocates for minimal government intervention in the economy, is not a reason why the U.S. economy has been more stable after 1946 than before. In fact, the New Deal policies implemented during and after World War II involved significant government intervention and regulation, and are generally credited with contributing to the stabilization of the economy.

Which of the Following Does Not Explain Why the U