The assessment of a 60-year-old patient has taken longer than anticipated. In testing his pain perception, the nurse decides to complete the test as quickly as possible. When the nurse applies the sharp point of the pin on his arm several times, he is only able to identify these as one "very sharp prick." What would be the most accurate explanation for this?
A) The patient has hyperesthesia as a result of the aging process.
B) This response is most likely the result of the summation effect.
C) The nurse was probably not poking hard enough with the pin in the other areas.
D) The patient most likely has analgesia in some areas of arm and hyperalgesia in others.
Correct Answer:
Verified
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