A 45-year-old male is diagnosed with sideroblastic anemia.When he asks what the most likely cause of this disease is, what is the nurse's best response?
A) Ineffective iron uptake and abnormal hemoglobin production
B) Misshapen erythrocytes with low hemoglobin
C) Decreased levels of tissue iron with megaloblastic erythrocytes
D) Premature erythrocyte destruction and erythropoietin deficiency

Question

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

Sideroblastic anemia is characterized by ineffective iron uptake and abnormal hemoglobin production, leading to the presence of ringed sideroblasts in the bone marrow.

A 45-Year-Old Male Is Diagnosed with Sideroblastic Anemia