The client receives warfarin (Coumadin) and becomes pregnant. The physician changes her anticoagulant to enoxaparin (Lovenox) . She asks the nurse "Why did the doctor do that"? What is the best explanation by the nurse?
A) "Because it is easier to maintain your bleeding times in a therapeutic range".
B) "Because warfarin (Coumadin) is known to cause serious cardiac defects."
C) "Because enoxaparin (Lovenox) cannot get into your baby through the placenta".
D) "Because you are less likely to have bleeding with enoxaparin (Lovenox) ."
Correct Answer:
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