Don,who Owed Dan $1,000 for His Share of the Cost

Don,who owed Dan $1,000 for his share of the cost of a fishing trip they took together 2 years ago,transferred to Dan a check for $700 that he had just received from a customer.Has Dan given value for holder in due course purposes?

A) Yes,because accepting an instrument in payment of a prior debt is considered to be value given for holder in due course purposes.
B) Yes,but only if Dan still intends to collect the remaining $300 from Don.
C) No,because the check was less than the amount of the debt.
D) No,because the check was from a business transaction and the debt was personal.
E) No,because Don had a preexisting duty to pay Dan the $1,000.