A 31-year-old woman attempting to become pregnant after several months sees her gynecologist who diagnoses her with luteal insufficiency, even though ovulation does occur. Which of the following is most likely responsible?
A) High serum levels of periovulatory luteinizing hormone (LH)
B) Elevated levels of periovulatory gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH)
C) Insufficient priming of the corpus luteum by follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
D) Inadequate LH surge to luteinize the corpus luteum
E) High levels of follicular phase estrogen
Correct Answer:
Verified
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