A client who is 11 weeks pregnant presents to the emergency department with complaints of dizziness, lower abdominal pain, and right shoulder pain. Laboratory tests reveal a beta-hCG at a lower-than-expected level for this gestational age. An adnexal mass is palpable. Ultrasound confirms no intrauterine gestation. The client is crying and asks what is happening. The nurse knows that the most likely diagnosis is an ectopic pregnancy. Which statement should the nurse include?

Question

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

The symptoms described, along with the findings of a lower-than-expected beta-hCG level, an adnexal mass, and no intrauterine gestation on ultrasound, are indicative of an ectopic pregnancy, likely with rupture given the presentation of dizziness (suggesting internal bleeding) and referred pain to the shoulder (indicative of diaphragmatic irritation by blood in the peritoneal cavity). The statement about the baby being in the fallopian tube and causing bleeding due to rupture is the most accurate and relevant explanation for the client's symptoms and situation.

A Client Who Is 11 Weeks Pregnant Presents to the Emergency