A 2-year-old boy develops the following symptoms: petechiae, purpura, and nosebleeds.The platelet count is 18,000.The most likely explanation is:
A) Drug-induced thrombocytopenia
B) Secondary thrombocytopenia
C) Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
D) Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
Correct Answer:
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Q6: Which of the following causes irreversible inactivation
Q7: Increased platelets are seen in which of
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Q9: All of the following are associated with
Q10: Immune drug-induced thrombocytopenia is a result of
Q11: Decreased platelets in combination with bloody diarrhea,
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