A 39-year-old female patient comes to the clinic for a pelvic examination and Pap smear. She reports that her partner is infected with Condyloma acuminata. In her history, she always has her partner use a condom. The external genitalia, vagina, and cervix appear normal on pelvic examination, but the Pap smear shows dysplasia. The patient is worried that she could be infected with human papilloma virus (HPV) . The clinician should:
A) Assure the patient that safe sexual practices protect against HPV infection
B) Explain that there is no condyloma present, so HPV infection is improbable
C) Explain that HPV infection can be transmitted even in the presence of barrier contraception
D) Teach the patient about hysterectomy because she has cervical cancer
Correct Answer:
Verified
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