Suppose that, in Year 1, the price of the U.K. pound is $1.44 = £1. In year 2, the price is $1.48 = £1. An economist would validly conclude that, from Year 1 to Year 2, the U.K. pound __________ relative to the U.S. dollar and, simultaneously, the U.S. dollar __________ relative to the U.K. pound.
A) appreciated; appreciated
B) appreciated; depreciated
C) depreciated; appreciated
D) depreciated; depreciated
Correct Answer:
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