Which of the following is suggested by the effectiveness of second generation antipsychotics in the treatment of schizophrenia?
A) There is no biological explanation for the symptoms of schizophrenia.
B) Decreased frontal lobe activity underlies the positive symptoms seen in schizophrenia.
C) Prenatal brain damage causes schizophrenia.
D) More than one brain area or neurotransmitter is involved in producing the symptoms of schizophrenia.
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q85: Social-skills training for people with schizophrenia
A) has
Q89: The subtype of schizophrenia that generally has
Q92: One-on-one psychotherapy for people with schizophrenia
A) shows
Q94: The best predictor of overall functioning over
Q95: Cognitive-behavioral treatment for people with schizophrenia
A) tries
Q96: _are false beliefs that are firmly held
Q100: First-generation antipsychotics _
A) work by blocking dopamine
Q105: _ are sensory experiences that seem true
Q111: The most important neurotransmitter implicated in schizophrenia
Q118: _ are discrete, stable, and measurable traits
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