The physician has ordered intravenous (IV) phenytoin (Dilantin) .The nurse does not read the drug label and administers the medication intramuscularly (IM) .What is the most likely response in the client?
A) Nothing adverse, the medication may be administered intravenously or intramuscularly.
B) A phenomenon known as purple gluteus syndrome most likely will occur.
C) A marked decrease in serum glucose levels most likely will occur.
D) Local tissue damage following extravasation most likely will occur.
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q1: The physician has ordered intravenous phenytoin (Dilantin).The
Q2: The physician has prescribed diazepam (Valium)syrup for
Q4: The client tells the nurse that she
Q5: The physician has prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin)for a
Q6: The client is receiving phenobarbital (Luminal)for control
Q7: The elderly client is taking phenobarbital (Luminal)for
Q8: The client says to the nurse, "My
Q9: The nurse has been conducting medication education
Q10: A parent says to me to the
Q11: The client is receiving phenobarbital (Luminal)for seizure
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents