To deem an agreement a per se violation of antitrust law, a court must determine whether the agreement actually constitutes a restraint on trade.

Question

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

A per se violation of antitrust law does not require a court to determine whether the agreement actually constitutes a restraint on trade; it is automatically deemed illegal regardless of its effect on the market.

To Deem an Agreement a Per Se Violation of Antitrust