Suppose a researcher finds that women are more likely to report experiencing emotions such as sadness and men are more likely to report experiencing anger. But when she examines physiological indicators of these same emotions, she finds no sex differences. What is the most likely explanation for this inconsistency?

Question

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

People's self-reports of emotions can be influenced by societal norms and gender stereotypes, leading to differences in self-reported emotions between men and women, even when physiological measures do not show such differences.

Suppose a Researcher Finds That Women Are More Likely to Report